A nurse in a prenatal clinic is examining the health record of a client who is 28 weeks pregnant.
The history includes one pregnancy terminated by elective abortion at 9 weeks, the birth of twins at 36 weeks, and a spontaneous abortion at 15 weeks.
According to the GTPAL system, how would you describe the client’s current status?
2-0-2-2-0
4-2-0-2-2
4-0-1-2-2
3-0-2-0-2
The Correct Answer is C
GTPAL calculation:
Step 1 is: Determine Gravida (G) = 4 pregnancies (1 elective abortion, 1 twin birth, 1 spontaneous abortion, 1 current pregnancy) = G4.
Step 2 is: Determine Term (T) births = 0 (no pregnancies reached 37 weeks).
Step 3 is: Determine Preterm (P) births = 1 (twin birth at 36 weeks) = P1.
Step 4 is: Determine Abortion (A) = 2 (1 elective abortion at 9 weeks, 1 spontaneous abortion at 15 weeks) = A2.
Step 5 is: Determine Living (L) children = 2 (twins) = L2.
The GTPAL status is: G4 T0 P1 A2 L2.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A cough and fever in a client at 38 weeks of gestation could indicate an infection, which should be addressed promptly. However, it is not as immediately life-threatening as painless vaginal bleeding at 28 weeks of gestation, which could indicate a serious complication such as placental abruption.
Choice B rationale
Nausea and vomiting at 14 weeks of gestation are common symptoms of early pregnancy and, while uncomfortable, are not usually a sign of a serious problem. This client should be seen, but not before a client with a potentially life-threatening condition like painless vaginal bleeding.
Choice C rationale
Painless vaginal bleeding at 28 weeks of gestation is a serious symptom that could indicate placental abruption, a condition where the placenta detaches from the uterus, which can be life-threatening for both the mother and the baby. This client should be seen first.
Choice D rationale
Vaginal spotting in a client who has missed a period could indicate early pregnancy or a number of other conditions. While this client should be seen to confirm the cause of the spotting, it is not as immediately urgent as painless vaginal bleeding at 28 weeks of gestation.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A negative rubella titer indicates that the client does not have immunity to the rubella virus. Therefore, the statement that the client is immune to the rubella virus is incorrect.
Choice B rationale
While it is true that a person with a negative rubella titer needs a rubella vaccination, it is not recommended to administer the vaccine immediately during pregnancy due to the potential risks to the fetus. Therefore, this statement is not correct in this context.
Choice C rationale
The correct interpretation of a negative rubella titer in an antepartum client is that the client should receive a rubella immunization post-delivery. This is because rubella can cause serious complications if contracted during pregnancy, including congenital rubella syndrome in the newborn. Vaccination post-delivery will protect the client in future pregnancies.
Choice D rationale
A negative rubella titer does not provide information about whether the client is currently infected with the rubella virus. It only indicates that the client does not have immunity to the virus. Therefore, this statement is not a correct interpretation of the data.
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