A nurse in a prenatal clinic is teaching a client who is in her second trimester and has a new diagnosis of gestational diabetes. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
"I know I am at increased risk to develop type 2 diabetes."
"I will take my glyburide daily with breakfast."
"I will reduce my exercise schedule to 3 days a week."
"I should limit my carbohydrates to 50% of caloric intake."
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: "I know I am at increased risk to develop type 2 diabetes." is a correct statement, because it indicates that the client understands the long-term implications of gestational diabetes. The client should be aware that gestational diabetes increases the risk of developing type 2 diabetes later in life, and that she should have regular screening and follow-up.
Choice B reason: "I will take my glyburide daily with breakfast." is a correct statement, because it indicates that the client understands the medication regimen for gestational diabetes. The client should take glyburide, a sulfonylurea that lowers blood glucose levels, as prescribed by the provider, and monitor her blood glucose levels before and after meals.
Choice C reason: "I will reduce my exercise schedule to 3 days a week." is an incorrect statement, because it indicates that the client does not understand the importance of physical activity for gestational diabetes. The client should exercise at least 30 minutes a day, 5 days a week, unless contraindicated by the provider. Exercise can help improve insulin sensitivity, lower blood glucose levels, and prevent excessive weight gain.
Choice D reason: "I should limit my carbohydrates to 50% of caloric intake." is a correct statement, because it indicates that the client understands the dietary guidelines for gestational diabetes. The client should consume a balanced diet that provides adequate but not excessive amounts of carbohydrates, protein, and fat, and that is consistent in carbohydrate intake throughout the day.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Physiological jaundice is not the correct answer, as it is a normal and benign condition that occurs in about 60% of term newborns, and usually appears after the first 24 hours of life. Physiological jaundice is caused by the breakdown of fetal hemoglobin and the immature liver function, and resolves within a few days.
Choice B reason: Maternal cocaine abuse is not the correct answer, as it is a maternal risk factor that can cause various complications in the newborn, such as low birth weight, prematurity, intrauterine growth restriction, or congenital anomalies. Maternal cocaine abuse does not cause jaundice in the newborn, unless it leads to hepatic or renal dysfunction.
Choice C reason: Maternal/newborn blood group incompatibility is the correct answer, as it is a maternal-fetal condition that can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn, which is a severe form of jaundice that can appear within the first 24 hours of life. Maternal/newborn blood group incompatibility occurs when the mother's blood type is Rh negative and the newborn's blood type is Rh positive, or when the mother's blood type is O and the newborn's blood type is A or B. The maternal antibodies cross the placenta and attack the newborn's red blood cells, causing hemolysis, anemia, and hyperbilirubinemia.
Choice D reason: Absence of vitamin K is not the correct answer, as it is a nutritional deficiency that can cause hemorrhagic disease of the newborn, which is a bleeding disorder that can occur within the first week of life. Absence of vitamin K is due to the lack of intestinal flora and the low vitamin K content in breast milk, and can cause bleeding in the skin, mucous membranes, or internal organs. Absence of vitamin K does not cause jaundice in the newborn, unless it leads to hepatic or biliary dysfunction.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: A tearful client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and is experiencing irregular, frequent contractions does not need to be reported to the provider immediately, because it may indicate preterm labor, which is not an emergency. The nurse should assess the client's cervix, fetal heart rate, and hydration status, and administer tocolytic therapy as prescribed.
Choice B reason: A client who has a diagnosis of preeclampsia has 2+ proteinuria and 2+ patellar reflexes does not need to be reported to the provider immediately, because they are expected findings in mild preeclampsia. The nurse should monitor the client's blood pressure, urine output, and reflexes, and administer antihypertensive and anticonvulsant medications as prescribed.
Choice C reason: A client who has a diagnosis of preeclampsia reports epigastric pain and unresolved headache needs to be reported to the provider immediately, because they are signs of severe preeclampsia or impending eclampsia. The nurse should prepare the client for delivery, as it is the only definitive treatment for preeclampsia.
Choice D reason: A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and receiving terbutaline reports fine tremors does not need to be reported to the provider immediately, because they are a common and mild side effect of terbutaline, a beta-adrenergic agonist that relaxes the uterine smooth muscle. The nurse should reassure the client that the tremors are temporary and harmless, and monitor the client's pulse and blood pressure.
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