A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor at 40 weeks of gestation and reports that she has saturated two perineal pads with blood in the past 30 min. The nurse caring for her suspects placenta previa. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?

Choice A reason: Preeclampsia is not the correct answer, as it is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that causes high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. Preeclampsia can be a risk factor for abruptio placentae, which is a premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, but it is not a complication of it. Preeclampsia does not cause petechiae or bleeding around the IV access site, but rather headaches, blurred vision, or epigastric pain.

Choice B reason: Anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy is not the correct answer, as it is a rare and fatal condition that occurs when the amniotic fluid enters the maternal circulation and causes an allergic reaction. Anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy can occur as a complication of abruptio placentae, but it is not indicated by the petechiae or bleeding around the IV access site. Anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy would cause respiratory distress, hypotension, or cardiac arrest.

Choice C reason: Puerperal infection is not the correct answer, as it is a bacterial infection of the reproductive tract that occurs after childbirth. Puerperal infection can occur as a complication of abruptio placentae, but it is not indicated by the petechiae or bleeding around the IV access site. Puerperal infection would cause fever, foul-smelling lochia, or pelvic pain.

Choice D reason: Disseminated intravascular coagulation is the correct answer, as it is a coagulation disorder that causes widespread clotting and bleeding in the body. Disseminated intravascular coagulation can occur as a complication of abruptio placentae, and it is indicated by the petechiae and bleeding around the IV access site. Disseminated intravascular coagulation would also cause a low platelet count, a prolonged prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), and a low fibrinogen level.

Choice A reason: A tearful client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and is experiencing irregular, frequent contractions does not need to be reported to the provider immediately, because it may indicate preterm labor, which is not an emergency. The nurse should assess the client's cervix, fetal heart rate, and hydration status, and administer tocolytic therapy as prescribed.

Choice B reason: A client who has a diagnosis of preeclampsia has 2+ proteinuria and 2+ patellar reflexes does not need to be reported to the provider immediately, because they are expected findings in mild preeclampsia. The nurse should monitor the client's blood pressure, urine output, and reflexes, and administer antihypertensive and anticonvulsant medications as prescribed.

Choice C reason: A client who has a diagnosis of preeclampsia reports epigastric pain and unresolved headache needs to be reported to the provider immediately, because they are signs of severe preeclampsia or impending eclampsia. The nurse should prepare the client for delivery, as it is the only definitive treatment for preeclampsia.

Choice D reason: A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and receiving terbutaline reports fine tremors does not need to be reported to the provider immediately, because they are a common and mild side effect of terbutaline, a beta-adrenergic agonist that relaxes the uterine smooth muscle. The nurse should reassure the client that the tremors are temporary and harmless, and monitor the client's pulse and blood pressure.