A nurse in a provider's office is assessing an adolescent who has been taking ibuprofen for 6 months to treat juvenile idiopathic arthritis. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask to assess for an adverse effect of this medication?
"Have you experienced muscle stiffness?"
"Have you had any stomach pain or bloody stools?"
"Have you experienced a dry cough?"
"Have you noticed an increase in urine output?"
The Correct Answer is B
A. Muscle stiffness is not a common or serious adverse effect of ibuprofen. Ibuprofen is an anti-inflammatory drug that can reduce pain and stiffness caused by arthritis.
B. Stomach pain or bloody stools are signs of gastrointestinal bleeding, which is a serious and potentially fatal adverse effect of ibuprofen. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can cause ulceration, perforation, and hemorrhage of the stomach or intestines . The nurse should ask the client about any gastrointestinal symptoms and advise them to avoid alcohol, smoking, and other NSAIDs while taking ibuprofen.
C. Dry cough is not a common or serious adverse effect of ibuprofen. Dry cough is more likely to be caused by angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, which are used to treat hypertension and heart failure.
D. Increase in urine output is not a common or serious adverse effect of ibuprofen. Ibuprofen can cause renal impairment, which can lead to decreased urine output, not increased urine output. The nurse should monitor the client's renal function tests and fluid balance while taking ibuprofen.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Incorrect. The lithotomy position is not appropriate for this procedure, as it can cause discomfort and embarrassment to the client. The nurse should place the client in a left lateral Sims' position with the right knee flexed for better access to the rectum and to reduce pressure on the abdominal organs.
B. Incorrect. The nurse should avoid eliciting a vagal response, as it can cause bradycardia, hypotension, and syncope in some clients. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs and stop the procedure if signs of vagal stimulation occur.
C. Incorrect. Oral bisacodyl is a stimulant laxative that can cause abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and electrolyte imbalance. It is not indicated for fecal impaction, as it can worsen the condition by increasing the bulk and hardness of the stool. The nurse should administer an enema or a stool softener before attempting digital evacuation.
D. Correct. The nurse should insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall, breaking up the stool and removing it in small pieces. The nurse should use gentle pressure and avoid injuring the rectal mucosa. The nurse should also explain the procedure to the client and obtain informed consent before performing it.
Correct Answer is ["18"]
Explanation
The client weighs 198 lb, which is equivalent to (198 ÷ 2.2 = 90kg.
Therefore, the amount of mannitol for the test dose is 0.2 g/kg x 90 kg = 18 g.
The nurse should administer 18 g of mannitol IV bolus over 5 min as a test dose to the client who has severe oliguria.
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