A nurse in a provider’s office is assessing an older adult client whose son reports that the client has been sick with a respiratory illness for the past 6 days. Which of the following assessment findings is a manifestation of pneumonia in the older adult client?
Narrowed pulse pressure
Night sweats
Bradycardia
Confusion
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Narrowed pulse pressure is not a specific manifestation of pneumonia in the older adult client. Pulse pressure is the difference between the systolic and diastolic blood pressure readings. A normal pulse pressure is about 40 mm Hg, and a narrowed pulse pressure is less than 25 mm Hg. A narrowed pulse pressure can indicate various conditions, such as heart failure, shock, or aortic stenosis, but it is not a sign of pneumonia.
Choice B reason: Night sweats are not a common manifestation of pneumonia in the older adult client. Night sweats are episodes of excessive sweating during sleep that can soak the bedding or clothing. Night sweats can have many causes, such as menopause, infections, medications, or cancer, but they are not typically associated with pneumonia.
Choice C reason: Bradycardia is not a usual manifestation of pneumonia in the older adult client. Bradycardia is a slow heart rate, defined as less than 60 beats per minute. Bradycardia can be normal in some people, such as athletes or those who are very fit, or it can be a sign of a problem with the heart's electrical system. Pneumonia does not cause bradycardia, but it can cause tachycardia, which is a fast heart rate, due to the increased oxygen demand and inflammation.
Choice D reason: Confusion is a frequent manifestation of pneumonia in the older adult client. Confusion is a state of impaired awareness, orientation, memory, or judgment. Confusion can occur in older adults with pneumonia due to several factors, such as hypoxia, dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, fever, or infection. Confusion can also increase the risk of complications, such as aspiration, falls, or delirium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the mental status of the older adult client with pneumonia and report any changes to the provider..
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is incorrect. It is not best to take medication with meals. Rifampin is better absorbed when taken on an empty stomach, at least 1 hour before or 2 hours after a meal. Taking rifampin with food can reduce its effectiveness and increase the risk of drug resistance. The nurse should advise the client to take the medication as directed by the doctor, and to avoid foods that can interact with rifampin, such as cheese, yogurt, or alcohol.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect. Treatment with this medication will not last for 1 month. Rifampin is usually given as part of a combination therapy for pulmonary tuberculosis, along with other drugs such as isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. The standard treatment regimen for drug susceptible tuberculosis consists of an intensive phase of 2 months, followed by a continuation phase of 4 or 7 months, depending on the drug regimen and the patient's response. The nurse should inform the client about the duration and the importance of completing the full course of treatment, even if the symptoms improve or the tests become negative.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect. This medication does not cause insomnia. Rifampin does not affect the sleep cycle or the quality of sleep. However, rifampin can cause other side effects, such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, headache, or rash. The nurse should instruct the client to report any severe or persistent side effects to the doctor, and to avoid taking over-the-counter drugs or herbal supplements without consulting the doctor, as rifampin can interact with many other medications and reduce their effectiveness.
Choice D reason: This is correct. Urine and other secretions might turn orange. Rifampin can cause a harmless discoloration of body fluids, such as urine, saliva, sweat, tears, or breast milk. The color can range from orange to red or brown, depending on the concentration of the drug and the pH of the fluid. The nurse should reassure the client that this is a normal and expected effect of rifampin, and that it does not indicate any damage to the kidneys or other organs. The nurse should also warn the client that rifampin can stain contact lenses, dentures, or clothing, and advise the client to use disposable lenses, remove dentures before taking the drug, and wear dark colored clothes.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Eliciting the gag reflex is not a valid way to assess cranial nerve III. The gag reflex is a protective mechanism that prevents choking or aspiration by triggering a contraction of the pharyngeal muscles when the back of the throat is stimulated. The gag reflex is mediated by cranial nerves IX and X, not III.
Choice B reason: Checking the pupillary response to light is a reliable way to assess cranial nerve III. The pupillary response to light is a reflex that causes the pupil to constrict when exposed to bright light and dilate when exposed to dim light. This reflex helps to regulate the amount of light that enters the eye and protects the retina from damage. The pupillary response to light is controlled by cranial nerve III, which innervates the sphincter pupillae muscle that constricts the pupil.
Choice C reason: Observing for facial symmetry is not a relevant way to assess cranial nerve III. Facial symmetry is the degree of similarity between the two halves of the face. Facial symmetry can be affected by various factors, such as genetics, aging, or facial nerve palsy. Facial nerve palsy is a condition that causes weakness or paralysis of the muscles that control facial expression. Facial nerve palsy is caused by damage to cranial nerve VII, not III.
Choice D reason: Testing visual acuity is not a sufficient way to assess cranial nerve III. Visual acuity is the ability to see fine details and distinguish objects at a distance. Visual acuity depends on various factors, such as the clarity of the lens and cornea, the shape of the eyeball, and the function of the retina. Visual acuity is mainly affected by cranial nerve II, which carries visual information from the retina to the brain. Cranial nerve III does not directly influence visual acuity, but it does innervate some of the muscles that move the eye and enable binocular vision.
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