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A nurse in a provider's office is caring for a 20-year-old client who is at 12 weeks of gestation and requests an amniocentesis to determine the sex of the fetus. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

A.

"Your provider will schedule a chorionic villus sampling to determine the sex of your baby."

B.

"This procedure determines if your baby has genetic or congenital disorders."

C.

"We can schedule the procedure for later today if you'd like."

D.

"You cannot have an amniocentesis until you are at least 35 years of age."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Rationale:

A. "Your provider will schedule a chorionic villus sampling to determine the sex of your baby." Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is a different prenatal test that involves taking a sample of chorionic villi for genetic testing, not determining the sex of the fetus.

B. "This procedure determines if your baby has genetic or congenital disorders."

Correct answer.

Amniocentesis is a prenatal test used to diagnose genetic disorders or chromosomal abnormalities, not to determine the sex of the fetus.

C. "We can schedule the procedure for later today if you'd like." Amniocentesis is not typically scheduled on the same day as requested. It requires prior preparation and scheduling.

D. "You cannot have an amniocentesis until you are at least 35 years of age." There's no age restriction for amniocentesis based solely on maternal age. It's typically recommended for women at higher risk for genetic conditions, regardless of age.


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Related Questions

Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]

Explanation

Rationale:

A. Vacuum-assisted delivery increases the risk of postpartum hemorrhage due to potential trauma to the birth canal and uterus.

B. A history of human papillomavirus is not directly associated with an increased risk of postpartum hemorrhage.

C. A history of uterine atony (inability of the uterus to contract effectively after delivery) is a significant risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage.

D. Labor induction with oxytocin can lead to uterine hyperstimulation or tetanic contractions, which may contribute to uterine atony and postpartum hemorrhage.

E. Newborn weight is not a risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Rationale:

A. Massaging the client's fundus is not indicated for hypotension following epidural anesthesia.

Fundal massage is typically performed to prevent or manage uterine atony and postpartum hemorrhage.

B. Turning the client to a side-lying position is a recommended intervention for hypotension following epidural anesthesia. This position helps improve venous return to the heart and can help alleviate hypotension by reducing aortocaval compression.

C. Applying oxygen via nasal cannula may be indicated if the client is experiencing respiratory distress, but it is not the primary intervention for hypotension.

D. Assisting the client to empty their bladder may be appropriate to relieve urinary retention but is not the priority intervention for hypotension.

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