A nurse in a psychiatric unit is caring for several clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse recommend for group therapy?
A client exhibiting psychotic behavior
A client who has been taking amitriptyline for 3 months for depression
A client who is experiencing alcohol intoxication
A client admitted 12 hr ago for acute mania
The Correct Answer is B
A. A client exhibiting psychotic behavior
Group therapy is generally not recommended for clients who are actively exhibiting psychotic behavior. Psychotic behavior can include hallucinations, delusions, and severe thought disturbances, which might impede the individual's ability to effectively participate and benefit from group therapy. Such clients often require more immediate and individualized attention to address their acute symptoms.
B. A client who has been taking amitriptyline for 3 months for depression
This is the correct choice. A client who has been taking amitriptyline for 3 months for depression is likely to have their symptoms more stabilized and under better control compared to acute situations. They might be at a stage where they can engage in group therapy to discuss their experiences, coping strategies, and learn from others in a similar situation.
C. A client who is experiencing alcohol intoxication
Group therapy is not appropriate for clients who are currently intoxicated, as their ability to actively participate and engage in therapeutic discussions may be compromised. Addressing the effects of alcohol intoxication and ensuring the client's safety would be a priority before considering group therapy.
D. A client admitted 12 hours ago for acute mania
Clients admitted for acute mania often require stabilization and intervention to manage their manic symptoms. In the early stages of admission, they might not be in a state conducive to group therapy. Once their acute symptoms are better controlled and they have had time to stabilize, they could potentially benefit from group therapy as part of their overall treatment plan.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D"]
Explanation
A. Low self-esteem is a risk factor for depression because negative self-perception and feelings of worthlessness can contribute to the development of depressive symptoms.
B. Irritability is associated with depression, especially in adolescents. It can manifest as a mood symptom and is often seen alongside other depressive features.
C. Chronic pain can be both a symptom and a risk factor for depression. Persistent pain can lead to changes in mood, behavior, and physical function, contributing to the development of depressive symptoms.
D. Insomnia, or difficulty sleeping, is a common symptom of depression and can also be a risk factor. Sleep disturbances are often seen in individuals with depression, and they can contribute to the severity of the condition.
E. Euphoria is not a risk factor for depression. In fact, it is more commonly associated with conditions like bipolar disorder, where individuals experience periods of elevated mood (mania or hypomania) alternating with periods of depression.
Correct Answer is ["24"]
Explanation
To calculate the mL/hr for the heparin infusion, you can use the formula:
mL/hr = (Total units required per hour) / (Units/mL in the solution)
Given:
Total units required per hour = 1,200 U/hr
Units/mL in the solution = 25,000 U / 500 mL = 50 U/mL
Plugging in the values:
mL/hr = (1,200 U/hr) / (50 U/mL)
mL/hr = 24 mL/hr (rounded to the nearest tenth)
Therefore, the nurse should set the IV pump to deliver 24 mL/hr for the heparin infusion.
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