A nurse in an obstetrical/gynecology office is assisting with the care of a client

Exhibits

Based on the information found in the client's medical record, which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate receiving from the provider?

(Select all that apply)

Instruct client to avoid alcohol for 72 hours after treatment

Administer metronidazole 2 grams PO time one dose.

Have the client douche morning and right

Recommend the client's partner receive treatment

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : A,B,D

A.   Instructing the client to avoid alcohol for 72 hours after treatment is important to avoid interactions with metronidazole.
B.   Administering metronidazole 2 grams PO as a one-time dose is appropriate for the treatment of trichomoniasis, a sexually transmitted infection characterized by frothy, yellow- green, malodorous discharge. Metronidazole is an effective treatment for this condition.
C.   Douching is generally not recommended, especially in cases of vaginal infections, as it can disrupt the natural balance of vaginal flora and potentially worsen symptoms. Therefore, the nurse should not anticipate receiving a prescription for client douching.
D.   Recommending the client's partner receive treatment is important to prevent reinfection and transmission of the infection. Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection, and both partners should be treated simultaneously to prevent recurrence.

E.   Performing an oatmeal sitz bath is not part of treatment for vaginal infections.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Rationale:

A. Rupture of the fetal membranes is a risk associated with pelvic examinations, but in the context of placenta previa, the primary concern is the risk of causing bleeding from the placenta, not necessarily rupture of the fetal membranes.

B. Infection is a potential risk of any invasive procedure, including pelvic examinations, but it is not the primary reason to avoid pelvic examinations in a client with placenta previa.

C. Profound bleeding is the primary reason to avoid pelvic examinations in a client with placenta previa. The placenta is positioned over or near the cervical os, and any manipulation of the cervix can cause significant bleeding due to disruption of the placental vessels.

D. Preterm labor is not directly related to performing a pelvic examination in a client with placenta previa.

A. "It's too soon for you to be worrying about that now." B. "A repeat cesarean section would be safer for both you and your baby." C. "There are so many variables that you'll have to ask your provider." D. “The primary consideration is what type of incision you had.”

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Rationale:

A. Dismissing the client's concerns or questions is not appropriate and does not address her inquiry.

B. While a repeat cesarean section may be recommended in some cases, it is not appropriate to make a definitive statement without considering the individual client's circumstances and preferences.

C. While there are variables to consider, the nurse should provide some information and guidance to the client rather than deferring entirely to the provider.

D. The type of uterine incision from the previous cesarean birth is a primary consideration in determining the suitability for VBAC. Clients with a low transverse uterine incision are generally considered good candidates for VBAC, while other types of incisions may increase the risk of uterine rupture during labor.

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A nurse in an obstetrical/gynecology office is assisting with the care of a client Exhibits Based on the information found in the client's medical record, which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate receiving from the provider? (Select all that apply)

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has placenta previa. Which of the following risks is the primary reason the nurse should avoid performing a pelvic examination?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who wants to know if it is possible to have a vaginal birth after a cesarean birth (VBAC). Which of the following statements by the nurse is appropriate?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is reinforcing teaching about diaphragms with a client. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

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A nurse is admitting a client who is at 36 weeks gestation and has painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. The nurse recognizes this finding as an indication of which of the following conditions?

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A nurse in an obstetrical/gynecology office is assisting with the care of a client

Exhibits

Based on the information found in the client's medical record, which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate receiving from the provider?

(Select all that apply)