A nurse in an urgent care center is assessing a client who reports a sudden onset of irregular palpitations, fatigue, and dizziness. The nurse finds a rapid and irregular heart rate with a significant pulse deficit. Which of the following dysrhythmias should the nurse expect to find on the ECG?
Sinus bradycardia
Sinus tachycardia
Atrial fibrillation
First-degree AV block
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect. Sinus bradycardia is a slow and regular heart rate that originates from the sinus node. It does not cause irregular palpitations, fatigue, or dizziness, unless the heart rate is very low or the client has underlying cardiac disease.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect. Sinus tachycardia is a fast and regular heart rate that originates from the sinus node. It may cause fatigue or dizziness, but not irregular palpitations or pulse deficit.
Choice C Reason: This is correct. Atrial fibrillation is a fast and irregular heart rate that originates from multiple foci in the atria. It causes irregular palpitations, fatigue, dizziness, and pulse deficit due to ineffective atrial contractions and variable ventricular response.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect. First-degree AV block is a delay in the conduction of impulses from the atria to the ventricles. It does not affect the heart rate or rhythm, and does not cause any symptoms.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is correct because the carotid pulse is the most accessible and reliable pulse to check during CPR for an adult client. The carotid pulse is the most accessible and reliable pulse to check during CPR for an adult client. The carotid pulse is located on the side of the neck, near the trachea. The nurse should use two fingers to palpate the carotid pulse for at least 5 seconds and no more than 10 seconds.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because the popliteal pulse is located behind the knee and is not easily palpable during CPR.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because the radial pulse is located on the wrist and may not be detectable during CPR due to low blood pressure or peripheral vasoconstriction.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because the apical pulse is located on the chest and requires a stethoscope to auscultate. The nurse should not interrupt chest compressions or ventilations to listen to the apical pulse during CPR.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because the client's best motor response is 5, which means he can localize pain, not follow commands.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because the client's eye opening response is 3, which means he opens his eyes to pain, not to speech.
Choice C Reason: This is correct because the client's GCS score is 13, which indicates a severe impairment of consciousness. The GCS is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness of a person who has a head injury. The GCS score ranges from 3 to 15, with lower scores indicating lower levels of consciousness. A GCS score of 8 or less indicates coma. The client's GCS score is 3 + 5 + 5 = 13, which is above the coma threshold, but still indicates a severe impairment of consciousness. The other choices are not consistent with the client's GCS score.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because the client's best verbal response is 5, which means he can orient himself to person, place, and time, not that he is unable to make vocal sounds.
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