A nurse in public clinic is planning a health fair for older adult clients in the community. In teaching medication safety, which of the following foods should the nurse advise the clients to avoid when taking their prescriptions?
Orange juice
Grapefruit juice
Milk
Carbonated beverage
The Correct Answer is B
A) Orange juice:
Orange juice is generally safe to consume with most medications and does not pose significant risks like grapefruit juice. It is a good source of vitamin C and typically does not interact with prescription medications in a harmful way. However, some medications, particularly those for high blood pressure or heart conditions, may have specific instructions regarding food interactions.
B) Grapefruit juice:
Grapefruit juice should be avoided by clients taking certain medications, as it can interfere with the metabolism of various drugs. Grapefruit contains compounds that inhibit the action of the enzyme cytochrome P450 3A4, which plays a crucial role in metabolizing many medications. This can lead to higher levels of the drug in the bloodstream, increasing the risk of adverse effects or toxicity. Medications commonly affected include certain statins, calcium channel blockers, and immunosuppressants, among others.
C) Milk:
Milk is generally safe to consume with most medications, though it can interfere with the absorption of certain drugs, such as tetracycline antibiotics or some bisphosphonates (used for osteoporosis). However, milk is not as commonly problematic as grapefruit juice and is not a major concern for most prescription medications.
D) Carbonated beverage:
Carbonated beverages, such as soda, do not typically interact with most medications in a way that would cause harm. However, some carbonated drinks can cause gastrointestinal discomfort, especially when taken with certain medications that affect the stomach or intestines.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) A client who has early dementia and awoke confused to their location this morning:
Confusion in a client with early dementia could indicate a range of possible causes, such as infections, medication side effects, or changes in routine. However, while this warrants investigation, confusion alone does not represent an immediate life-threatening situation according to the ABCDE priority framework. The focus is on managing airway, breathing, circulation, and disability issues first.
B) A client who is scheduled for discharge and has a 38.4°C (101.1°F) temperature this morning:
A fever may indicate infection, which would require further assessment and potentially treatment. While this is a concern, it does not immediately threaten the client's airway, breathing, or circulation. Since the client is not in an acute crisis and is scheduled for discharge, this would be a lower priority compared to clients with more urgent issues like breathing problems or insufficient urine output.
C) A client who has pneumonia and has developed wheezing:
Wheezing indicates potential airway constriction, which could impair the client's breathing. Given that breathing difficulties are a primary concern in the ABCDE priority framework (Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, and Exposure), this client requires immediate attention. Pneumonia combined with wheezing can signify a worsening respiratory condition, which poses an acute risk to the client's oxygenation and overall stability.
D) A client who is postoperative and has a urine output of 50 mL for the past 3 hours:
Oliguria (low urine output) postoperatively is concerning, as it may indicate kidney dysfunction, hypovolemia, or other complications. While it is an important issue that requires attention, it is not immediately life-threatening unless the client shows signs of worsening shock or kidney failure. However, given that this issue does not immediately affect the client’s airway or breathing, it is a lower priority than the client with pneumonia and wheezing.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) A client who has heart failure and peripheral edema:
While heart failure and peripheral edema are significant conditions that require medical attention, they are chronic issues that, in most cases, are not immediately life-threatening in an emergency department setting unless there is acute decompensated heart failure or signs of severe fluid overload or respiratory distress.
B) A client who reports urinary burning and a temperature of 29.2° C (102.5°F):
This client is febrile, which suggests an infection, possibly a urinary tract infection (UTI). Although fever and urinary burning are concerning, infection-related fevers generally don't pose an immediate life threat unless there is sepsis or severe systemic involvement. A temperature of 102.5°F is significant, but the client's condition is not as urgent as other life-threatening emergencies like an arrhythmia or severe cardiovascular instability.
C) A client who has cirrhosis of the liver and bruising on their arms:
Bruising in a client with cirrhosis of the liver could indicate bleeding tendencies, which is an important concern. However, unless there is active bleeding or signs of severe liver failure (e.g., confusion, ascites, jaundice), this is not an immediate, life-threatening situation.
D) A client who has a new onset of atrial fibrillation and a heart rate of 152/min:
A new onset of atrial fibrillation (AF) with a heart rate of 152/min is an immediate priority. This is a life-threatening arrhythmia that can lead to decreased cardiac output, risk of stroke, and hemodynamic instability. A heart rate of 152 beats per minute is dangerously high, which could lead to tachycardia-induced cardiomyopathy or cardiogenic shock. Immediate intervention is needed to manage the arrhythmia and prevent further complications.
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