A nurse in the emergency department is admitting a client who has diabetic ketoacidosis and a blood glucose level of 800 mg/dL.
Which of the following interventions should the nurse initiate first?
Subcutaneous insulin injections.
Bicarbonate by IV infusion.
0.9% sodium chloride 15 m/kg/hr.
Potassium chloride 10 mEq/hr.
The Correct Answer is C
The first intervention for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis and a blood glucose level of 800 mg/dL should be to initiate fluid replacement therapy with 0.9% sodium chloride at a rate of 15 mL/kg/hr.
This will help to replace fluids lost through excessive urination and to dilute the excess sugar in the blood.
Choice A is wrong because subcutaneous insulin injections are not the first intervention for diabetic ketoacidosis.
Insulin therapy is generally given intravenously.
Choice B is wrong because bicarbonate by IV infusion is not the first intervention for diabetic ketoacidosis.
Choice D is wrong because potassium chloride at a rate of 10 mEq/hr is not the first intervention for diabetic ketoacidosis.
Electrolyte replacement may be necessary to replace minerals such as sodium, potassium, and chloride, but this is not the first intervention 2.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A client who has deep-vein thrombosis and is taking warfarin should obtain an International Normalized Ratio (INR) test monthly.
This blood test measures how fast the blood clots and helps the healthcare provider determine if the client is taking the right dose of warfarin to keep them safe from bleeding and making clots.
Choice A is wrong because Platelet count, is not the correct answer because it measures the number of platelets in the blood and is not specifically related to warfarin therapy.
Choice B is wrong because aPTT, is not the correct answer because it measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin therapy.
Choice C is wrong because Fibrinogen, is not the correct answer because it measures the amount of fibrinogen in the blood and is not specifically related to warfarin therapy.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The nurse should monitor the client for fever as an indication that the client is experiencing an acute infusion reaction to IV amphotericin
Fever is a common symptom of an infusion reaction to amphotericin
Choice A is wrong because pedal edema is not a commonly reported symptom of an acute infusion reaction to amphotericin
Choice C is wrong because hyperglycemia is not a commonly reported symptom of an acute infusion reaction to amphotericin
Choice D is wrong because dry cough is not a commonly reported symptom of an acute infusion reaction to amphotericin
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