A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a school-age child who has developed respiratory stridor, wheezing, and urticaria after receiving an IV medication. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Administer methylprednisolone.
Administer oxygen.
Administer epinephrine.
Administer a nebulized bronchodilator.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Methylprednisolone is a corticosteroid that can help reduce inflammation. While it may be beneficial in some cases of allergic reactions, it is not the first-line treatment for severe
anaphylaxis. In this situation, the priority is to address the immediate symptoms and stabilize the child's condition.
B. Administering oxygen is an important intervention, especially if the child is experiencing respiratory distress. However, in the case of severe anaphylaxis, administering epinephrine is the highest priority as it addresses multiple aspects of the reaction, including airway constriction,
low blood pressure, and hives.
C. This is the correct action. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis. It works rapidly to improve breathing, increase blood pressure, and reduce allergic symptoms. It is considered the most critical intervention in this situation.
D. Nebulized bronchodilators can be beneficial for respiratory distress, but they are not the first-line treatment for severe anaphylaxis. Epinephrine is more effective in rapidly reversing the
allergic reaction and stabilizing the child's condition. It addresses a broader range of symptoms in anaphylaxis compared to a bronchodilator.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Absent nuchal rigidity is a positive sign in the context of managing bacterial
meningitis, but it alone does not determine when droplet precautions can be discontinued.
B. This is the correct answer. A negative cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) culture indicates that the bacterial infection has been effectively treated. Once the CSF culture is negative, the child is no longer considered contagious and can be removed from droplet precautions.
C. The initiation of antibiotics is an important step in treating bacterial meningitis, but the passage of time alone does not indicate when precautions can be discontinued. The
effectiveness of treatment is better determined by laboratory and clinical indicators.
D. The temperature is an important clinical parameter, but a temperature below 37.4° C (99.3° F) alone does not determine when droplet precautions can be discontinued. The decision is based on the resolution of the infectious process, as indicated by negative cultures.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Administering an antidepressant is an important intervention for a client with major depressive disorder. However, before initiating any treatment, it is crucial to assess the client's risk for self-harm or suicidal ideation.
B. Assisting the client in completing activities of daily living (ADLs) is important for their overall well-being, but the most immediate concern for a client with major depressive disorder is to assess their safety and risk for self-harm.
C. Correct. Assessing the client's risk for self-harm or suicidal ideation is the first priority.
This information will help determine the level of intervention and support needed.
D. Encouraging the client to attend group therapy is a valuable intervention, but it is not the first priority. Safety concerns must be addressed before implementing other
therapeutic interventions.
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