A nurse is assessing a client who gave birth 1 week ago.
The client states, "I don't know what's wrong.
I love my baby, but I feel so let down and I seem to cry for no reason.”. The nurse should identify that the client is experiencing which of the following emotional responses to birth?
Postpartum depression.
Taking-in phase.
Postpartum blues.
Taking-hold phase.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Postpartum depression involves persistent sadness and impaired functioning, typically lasting longer than two weeks. This client’s symptoms suggest a more transient condition.
Choice B rationale
The taking-in phase refers to the period immediately postpartum when the mother focuses on her own needs, not emotional instability as described.
Choice C rationale
Postpartum blues, characterized by mood swings, crying spells, and irritability, typically resolve within two weeks postpartum and are linked to hormonal changes.
Choice D rationale
The taking-hold phase involves active learning about infant care and maternal adjustment, not the emotional lability described in this scenario.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Continuous monitoring of fetal heart rate provides early detection of distress in placenta previa cases, ensuring timely intervention to prevent complications such as fetal hypoxia or preterm birth.
Choice B rationale
Betamethasone accelerates fetal lung maturity, reducing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome if preterm delivery occurs, which is crucial in placenta previa cases at 35 weeks of gestation.
Choice C rationale
Cervical checks in placenta previa cases increase the risk of bleeding and further complications due to disruption of placental attachment, contraindicating frequent dilation assessments.
Choice D rationale
Misoprostol is contraindicated in placenta previa due to its potential to induce uterine contractions, which can worsen bleeding and lead to placental separation or fetal harm.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Molar pregnancy often manifests as intermittent dark brown vaginal discharge due to trophoblastic tissue expulsion. It warrants assessment as it correlates with hCG elevation and abnormal placental development.
Choice B rationale
Although significant blood loss could occur, dark brown discharge is not indicative of active hemorrhage. Hypovolemic shock typically results from acute red blood loss, not the chronic nature of this presentation.
Choice C rationale
Choriocarcinoma is a concern in cases following molar pregnancies, yet dark brown discharge alone does not confirm malignancy. Laboratory testing may be indicated, but it is not the immediate priority here.
Choice D rationale
Suction and curettage are treatment options for molar pregnancy but are contingent upon confirmed diagnosis. This intervention is premature without comprehensive assessment findings suggesting molar pregnancy.
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