A nurse instructs a class of older adult women about Kegel exercises. In which of the following urinary conditions would Kegel exercises be effective?

Functional incontinence

Stress incontinence

Urinary retention

Fecal incontinence

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Functional incontinence: Functional incontinence occurs when a person has difficulty reaching the toilet due to physical or cognitive impairments, such as mobility issues or dementia. Kegel exercises, which focus on strengthening the pelvic floor muscles, would not directly address the underlying causes of functional incontinence.

B. Stress incontinence: Stress incontinence is characterized by the involuntary leakage of urine during activities that increase abdominal pressure, such as coughing, sneezing, laughing, or exercising. Kegel exercises are specifically designed to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, which can help support the bladder and reduce the occurrence of stress incontinence.

C. Urinary retention: Urinary retention refers to the inability to empty the bladder completely. While Kegel exercises may help improve bladder control, they are not typically used to address urinary retention, which often requires other interventions such as medications, catheterization, or surgery.

D. Fecal incontinence: Fecal incontinence involves the involuntary leakage of stool. Kegel exercises are not effective for addressing fecal incontinence, as they primarily target the pelvic floor muscles involved in urinary control, not bowel control. Treatment for fecal incontinence may include dietary modifications, medications, pelvic floor rehabilitation, or surgical interventions, depending on the underlying cause.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Check residual volume every 4 to 6 hr: While checking residual volume is an essential component of enteral feeding management, it is not the priority action in this scenario. The client's positioning to prevent aspiration takes precedence over checking residual volume.

B. Observe client's respiratory status: Monitoring respiratory status is crucial for any client with a decreased level of consciousness. However, in this case, the priority is to prevent aspiration, and positioning takes precedence over respiratory assessment.

C. Elevate the head of the client's bed 30° to 45°: The priority action for a client receiving continuous enteral feedings via a gastrostomy tube and experiencing a decreased level of consciousness is to maintain proper positioning to prevent aspiration. Elevating the head of the bed 30° to 45° helps reduce the risk of aspiration by promoting drainage of stomach contents away from the airway. This position also helps prevent reflux of gastric contents into the esophagus, which can lead to aspiration pneumonia.

D. Monitor intake and output every 8 hr: Monitoring intake and output is essential for assessing fluid balance and the effectiveness of enteral feedings. However, it is not the priority action in this situation compared to maintaining proper positioning to prevent aspiration.

A. A client who has stage IV breast cancer and is expected to live 3 months. B. A client who has a diagnosis of COPD and requires supplemental oxygen. C. A client who has end stage kidney disease and has stopped dialysis D. A client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus and is on an insulin pump E. A client who has terminal lung cancer and has discontinued all treatment

Correct Answer is ["A","C","E"]

Explanation

A. A client who has stage IV breast cancer and is expected to live 3 months:
This client is eligible for hospice care because they have a terminal illness (stage IV breast cancer) with a prognosis of less than six months to live if the disease follows its typical course. Hospice care focuses on comfort and quality of life in the final months of life.

B. A client who has a diagnosis of COPD and requires supplemental oxygen:
This client is not automatically eligible for hospice care based solely on a COPD diagnosis and the need for supplemental oxygen. Eligibility for hospice would require a prognosis of six months or less to live if the disease follows its usual course. More specific criteria, such as frequent hospitalizations or a significant decline in functional status, would need to be met.

C. A client who has end-stage kidney disease and has stopped dialysis:
This client is eligible for hospice care because stopping dialysis typically indicates that the client has a limited life expectancy, usually measured in weeks to months. Hospice care can help manage symptoms and provide support for end-of-life care.

D. A client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus and is on an insulin pump:
This client is not eligible for hospice care based solely on the presence of type 1 diabetes mellitus and the use of an insulin pump. Hospice care eligibility is generally for clients with a terminal diagnosis and a life expectancy of six months or less if the disease follows its usual course.

E. A client who has terminal lung cancer and has discontinued all treatment:
This client is eligible for hospice care because they have a terminal illness (lung cancer) and have chosen to discontinue curative treatment. Hospice care focuses on palliative treatment to improve the quality of life and manage symptoms during the end-of-life stage.

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A nurse instructs a class of older adult women about Kegel exercises. In which of the following urinary conditions would Kegel exercises be effective?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is planning care for a client who has a decreased level of consciousness. The client is receiving continuous enteral feedings via a gastrostomy tube due to an inability to swallow. Which of the following is the priority action by the nurse?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients is eligible for hospice care? (Select All that Apply)

Correct Answer is ["A","C","E"]

Explanation

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