A nurse is applying oxygen via nasal cannula to a client diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The client reports extreme shortness of breath. At what rate should the nurse set the flowmeter?

4L of oxygen per minute

2L of oxygen per minute

6L of oxygen per minute

8L of oxygen per minute

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Oxygen at 4L per minute is generally too high for clients with COPD. High oxygen concentrations can suppress their hypoxic drive, which is their primary mechanism for breathing.

B. Oxygen at 2L per minute is the appropriate starting rate for clients with COPD. This flow rate provides supplemental oxygen without significantly increasing the risk of suppressing the client’s respiratory drive.

C. Oxygen at 6L per minute is excessive for clients with COPD and can lead to complications such as hypercapnia or respiratory depression.

D. Oxygen at 8L per minute is not recommended for clients with COPD unless specifically ordered in a life-threatening situation, as it can suppress their respiratory drive and worsen their condition.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Atropine is used to treat bradycardia and is not indicated for pulmonary embolism. It would not be the first choice in managing this condition.

B. Heparin is an anticoagulant that helps prevent further clot formation in the case of a pulmonary embolism. It is typically administered to stabilize the patient and reduce the risk of further embolic events.

C. Dexamethasone is a corticosteroid used to treat inflammation and is not typically used to treat pulmonary embolism. It is not the first-line treatment for this condition.

D. Furosemide is a diuretic used to manage fluid retention and is not directly indicated for pulmonary embolism. It may be used in cases of heart failure or pulmonary edema, but it is not the primary treatment for a pulmonary embolism.

A. Decreased PaO2 <60mmHg. B. PaO2 greater than 80mmHg. C. Decreased platelet count and hematocrit levels. D. Changes in ST segment and T-wave. E. PaCO2 40mmHg.

Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]

Explanation

A. Decreased PaO2 <60mmHg: A hallmark of fat embolism syndrome (FES) is hypoxemia, which results in a PaO2 less than 60 mmHg. This is a key indicator of the severity of respiratory compromise in FES and ARDS.

B. PaO2 greater than 80mmHg: This would not be consistent with FES. Fat embolism often causes significant hypoxemia, and PaO2 greater than 80 mmHg would indicate adequate oxygenation.

C. Decreased platelet count and hematocrit levels: In fat embolism syndrome, there is often a decrease in platelet count and hematocrit due to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which can occur as a complication of fat embolism.

D. Changes in ST segment and T-wave: Electrocardiographic changes, including changes in ST segment and T-wave, are commonly seen in fat embolism syndrome due to myocardial injury, hypoxemia, or shock.

E. PaCO2 40mmHg: A PaCO2 of 40 mmHg is within normal limits and does not indicate any significant respiratory distress or abnormality that would be expected in fat embolism syndrome.

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A nurse is applying oxygen via nasal cannula to a client diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The client reports extreme shortness of breath. At what rate should the nurse set the flowmeter?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who has just developed a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]

Explanation

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