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A nurse is assessing a client. Which of the following manifestations would indicate that the client is in cardiogenic shock? (Select all that apply)

Decreased cardiac output.

Increased pulse rate.

Postural hypotension.

Bounding pulse.

Weak thready pulse.

Hypertension.

Capillary refill greater than 3 seconds.

Capillary refill less than 3 seconds.

Pink frothy sputum.

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : A,B,E,G,I

Choice A reason: Decreased cardiac output is a hallmark of cardiogenic shock, as the heart fails to pump adequately. This aligns with shock pathophysiology, making it a correct manifestation the nurse would expect when assessing a client for cardiogenic shock in a clinical setting.

Choice B reason: Increased pulse rate occurs in cardiogenic shock as the body compensates for low cardiac output. This aligns with cardiovascular assessment findings, making it a correct manifestation the nurse would identify in a client experiencing cardiogenic shock during evaluation.

Choice C reason: Postural hypotension is more typical of hypovolemic or orthostatic issues, not cardiogenic shock, which features weak pulses. Weak thready pulse is correct, making this incorrect, as it’s not a primary sign of cardiogenic shock in the nurse’s assessment.

Choice D reason: Bounding pulse suggests hyperdynamic circulation, not cardiogenic shock, where perfusion is poor. Weak thready pulse is typical, making this incorrect, as it does not reflect the compromised cardiac output expected in the nurse’s evaluation of cardiogenic shock.

Choice E reason: Weak thready pulse indicates poor perfusion in cardiogenic shock due to reduced cardiac output. This aligns with peripheral vascular assessment, making it a correct manifestation the nurse would expect when assessing a client in cardiogenic shock.

Choice F reason: Hypertension is not typical in cardiogenic shock, which often presents with hypotension due to pump failure. Pink frothy sputum is correct, making this incorrect, as it contradicts the hemodynamic profile in the nurse’s assessment of cardiogenic shock.

Choice G reason: Capillary refill greater than 3 seconds reflects poor perfusion in cardiogenic shock, consistent with low cardiac output. This aligns with peripheral assessment findings, making it a correct manifestation the nurse would note in a client with cardiogenic shock.

Choice H reason: Capillary refill less than 3 seconds suggests normal perfusion, not cardiogenic shock, where refill is delayed. Greater than 3 seconds is correct, making this incorrect, as it does not align with the poor perfusion in cardiogenic shock assessment.

Choice I reason: Pink frothy sputum indicates pulmonary edema, common in cardiogenic shock due to left heart failure. This aligns with respiratory assessment findings, making it a correct manifestation the nurse would expect in a client with cardiogenic shock.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: A low-fat diet benefits gallbladder issues, not acute diverticulitis, which requires reduced bowel stimulation. A low-fiber diet prevents irritation, making this incorrect, as it’s less relevant than the nurse’s anticipated prescription for managing acute diverticulitis symptoms effectively.

Choice B reason: A low-fiber diet is prescribed for acute diverticulitis to rest the colon and reduce irritation of inflamed diverticula. This aligns with gastrointestinal treatment protocols, making it the correct diet the nurse would anticipate for the client’s acute diverticulitis management.

Choice C reason: A high-protein diet supports healing but isn’t specific for acute diverticulitis, which needs low fiber to avoid irritation. Low-fiber is correct, making this incorrect, as it’s not the primary diet the nurse expects for managing acute diverticulitis symptoms.

Choice D reason: A high-carbohydrate diet may increase bowel activity, worsening acute diverticulitis. A low-fiber diet reduces stimulation, making this incorrect, as it’s inappropriate compared to the nurse’s anticipated prescription for a diet to manage acute diverticulitis effectively.

A. A 45-year-old with a nasogastric (NG) tube who has dry oral mucosa and reports feeling very thirsty. B. A 57-year-old receiving IV diuretics whose blood pressure is 88/52 mm Hg. C. A 67-year-old with nausea and vomiting who reports abdominal cramps. D. A 77-year-old with normal saline infusing at 150 mL/hr with an average hourly urine output.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Dry mucosa and thirst suggest dehydration, but hypotension (88/52) is more life-threatening. Low blood pressure requires immediate assessment, making this incorrect, as it’s less urgent than the nurse’s priority to address the client with critical hemodynamic instability.

Choice B reason: A blood pressure of 88/52 mm Hg in a client on IV diuretics indicates severe hypotension, a life-threatening condition requiring immediate assessment. This aligns with prioritization in acute care, making it the correct client for the nurse to assess first post-shift report.

Choice C reason: Nausea, vomiting, and cramps are concerning but less urgent than hypotension (88/52), which risks organ perfusion. Low blood pressure is critical, making this incorrect, as it’s secondary to the nurse’s priority of assessing the client with unstable vitals.

Choice D reason: Normal saline at 150 mL/hr with adequate urine output is stable. Hypotension (88/52) is more critical, making this incorrect, as it’s a lower priority compared to the nurse’s need to assess the client with life-threatening low blood pressure first.

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A nurse is assessing a client. Which of the following manifestations would indicate that the client is in cardiogenic shock? (Select all that apply)

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