A nurse is assessing a client who has a spinal cord injury with heterotopic ossifications. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Hypertension
Bradycardia
Fecal impaction
Arthralgia
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A Reason:
Hypertension is not typically associated with heterotopic ossifications. However, it may occur in individuals with spinal cord injuries (SCI) due to autonomic dysreflexia, a condition characterized by an exaggerated sympathetic response to stimuli below the level of injury. Autonomic dysreflexia can lead to a sudden increase in blood pressure, which, if left untreated, can result in complications such as stroke or seizure. However, hypertension is not directly related to heterotopic ossifications.
Choice B Reason:
Bradycardia is also not typically associated with heterotopic ossifications. Like hypertension, bradycardia may occur in individuals with SCI due to autonomic dysreflexia. Autonomic dysreflexia can lead to a sudden increase in blood pressure and a reflex bradycardia in response to the increased sympathetic outflow. However, bradycardia is not directly related to heterotopic ossifications.
Choice C Reason:
Fecal impaction is a potential complication of spinal cord injury (SCI) due to impaired bowel function, but it is not directly related to heterotopic ossifications. SCI can disrupt normal bowel motility and result in neurogenic bowel dysfunction, leading to symptoms such as constipation, fecal impaction, and bowel obstruction. However, fecal impaction is not specific to heterotopic ossifications.
Choice D Reason:
Arthralgia is correct. Heterotopic ossifications (HO) involve the abnormal formation of bone in soft tissues around joints, muscles, tendons, or ligaments. When HO occurs around joints, it can lead to symptoms such as pain, swelling, and decreased range of motion, collectively known as arthralgia. Therefore, arthralgia is a common finding associated with heterotopic ossifications in individuals with spinal cord injuries.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","D","E","F"]
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Easily getting back to sleep after awakening is incorrect. This is not typically a manifestation of obstructive sleep apnea. Instead, individuals with OSA often experience fragmented sleep due to frequent awakenings caused by apnea episodes.
Choice B Reason:
Many episodes of apnea per night is correct. Yes, individuals with obstructive sleep apnea experience many episodes of apnea (complete cessation of breathing) or hypopnea (partial obstruction of airflow) per night. These episodes can occur multiple times throughout the night, disrupting normal sleep patterns.
Choice C Reason:
Loud snort after breathing cessation is correct. This is a characteristic manifestation of obstructive sleep apnea. Individuals with OSA often make choking, snorting, or gasping sounds after a period of breathing cessation as they attempt to resume breathing.
Choice D Reason:
10 seconds or longer of breathing cessation is correct. Yes, breathing cessation episodes in obstructive sleep apnea typically last for 10 seconds or longer. These prolonged episodes of apnea contribute to oxygen desaturation and disrupted sleep.
Choice E Reason:
Daytime sleepiness is correct. Yes, daytime sleepiness is a common symptom of obstructive sleep apnea. Disrupted sleep patterns and frequent awakenings during the night can lead to excessive daytime sleepiness, fatigue, and decreased alertness.
Choice F Reason:
Frequent, loud snoring is correct. Yes, frequent, loud snoring is a hallmark symptom of obstructive sleep apnea. Snoring occurs due to the partial obstruction of airflow in the upper airway during sleep.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
"When did you have your last physical?": This question is relevant to assess the client's overall health status and identify any potential comorbidities or health conditions that may be associated with Parkinson's disease. However, it is not as crucial as asking about family history, which directly addresses the client's potential genetic predisposition to Parkinson's disease.
Choice B Reason:
"Do you have any family members with Parkinson's disease?" Parkinson's disease can have both genetic and environmental factors contributing to its development. While the exact cause of Parkinson's disease is not fully understood, having a family history of the condition is a significant risk factor. Individuals with first-degree relatives (parents, siblings, or children) who have Parkinson's disease have an increased risk of developing the condition themselves.
Choice C Reason:
"What kind of work do you do?": This question aims to gather information about the client's occupational history and potential exposure to environmental toxins or factors that may be associated with Parkinson's disease. Certain occupations or exposures to pesticides, herbicides, heavy metals, or other toxins have been linked to an increased risk of Parkinson's disease. While occupational history is important, it is not as directly relevant to assessing the client's risk factors as asking about family history.
Choice D Reason:
"How much coffee do you drink every day?": Research has suggested that caffeine consumption may be associated with a reduced risk of Parkinson's disease or may potentially delay its onset. However, the evidence is not definitive, and the relationship between caffeine intake and Parkinson's disease is still not fully understood. While caffeine consumption may be a relevant factor to explore, especially if the client has a high intake of coffee, it is not as critical as inquiring about family history, which directly addresses genetic predisposition to Parkinson's disease.
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