A nurse is assessing a client who has been recently diagnosed with Bell's palsy. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? [Select all that apply.]

Unilateral facial drooping

Unilateral arm weakness

Alopecia

Difficulty swallowing

Inability to close the affected eye

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : A

A) Unilateral facial drooping:
Unilateral facial drooping is the hallmark sign of Bell's palsy, a condition that results from inflammation of the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII). This inflammation causes muscle weakness or paralysis on one side of the face, leading to drooping of the mouth, eyelid, and other facial features on the affected side. The facial drooping may worsen with smiling, closing the eyes, or other facial expressions, making this a key finding in Bell’s palsy.

B) Unilateral arm weakness:
Unilateral arm weakness is not typically associated with Bell's palsy, which specifically affects the facial muscles due to nerve damage. While weakness can occur in other parts of the body due to neurological conditions, it is not a characteristic symptom of Bell’s palsy, which is primarily a cranial nerve issue. Therefore, arm weakness would prompt consideration of other potential neurological causes.

C) Alopecia:
Alopecia, or hair loss, is not a common symptom of Bell's palsy. Although it can be seen in many different conditions, it is not typically linked with Bell's palsy, which is a disorder of the facial nerve. Bell’s palsy affects facial muscles, leading to symptoms like drooping or inability to close the eye, but it does not directly cause hair loss.

D) Difficulty swallowing:
Difficulty swallowing (dysphagia) can occur in Bell's palsy, especially if the facial nerve affects the ability to control the muscles involved in swallowing. This may lead to difficulty with chewing, swallowing, or speaking clearly. While not always severe, dysphagia is a potential complication due to the involvement of the facial nerve, which controls facial muscles essential for these functions.

E) Inability to close the affected eye:
The inability to close the affected eye is a common symptom of Bell's palsy due to paralysis of the orbicularis oculi muscle, which is controlled by the facial nerve. This can lead to dryness or irritation of the eye and a risk for corneal damage if the eye is not properly closed or protected. This inability to close the eye is one of the hallmark features of Bell's palsy.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) A corticosteroid such as fluticasone:
While corticosteroids, such as fluticasone, are effective for managing chronic asthma and preventing inflammation over time, they are not the first-line treatment during an acute asthma attack. Corticosteroids are typically used for long-term control and maintenance therapy, not for rapid relief of symptoms in an acute exacerbation. Immediate relief is needed in acute situations, which corticosteroids alone do not provide.

B) A long-acting beta 2 agonist such as salmeterol:
Long-acting beta-2 agonists (LABAs), such as salmeterol, are used for maintenance therapy to prevent asthma attacks and should not be used for the immediate treatment of an acute asthma exacerbation. They take longer to start working, and their role is to provide prolonged bronchodilation over time, not to relieve sudden bronchoconstriction.

C) A short-acting beta 2 agonist such as albuterol:
During an acute asthma attack, the immediate goal is to relieve bronchoconstriction and improve airflow. Short-acting beta-2 agonists like albuterol are the first-line treatment because they quickly relax the smooth muscles of the airways, leading to bronchodilation. Albuterol works within minutes, providing rapid relief from the symptoms of wheezing, shortness of breath, and chest tightness.

D) Methylxanthines such as Theophylline:
Methylxanthines (e.g., theophylline) were once used for asthma management but are no longer considered the first-line treatment for acute exacerbations due to their narrow therapeutic range and the potential for toxicity. While theophylline can provide bronchodilation, its onset of action is slower than that of beta-agonists like albuterol, and it is generally reserved for more chronic management of asthma or severe cases where other medications are not effective.

A. Continue to monitor as this is a normal response to the medication B. Administration of atropine C. Place the patient in the trendelenburg position D. Administer diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for the allergic reaction

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Continue to monitor as this is a normal response to the medication: The symptoms the patient is experiencing (cramping, diaphoresis, increased oral secretions) are not normal responses to the edrophonium test and suggest a cholinergic crisis rather than a simple reaction to the medication. A cholinergic crisis occurs when there is overmedication with cholinergic drugs, leading to excessive stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system. While mild effects like slight nausea or dizziness can occur, cramping, diaphoresis, and increased oral secretions indicate toxicity, requiring immediate intervention.

B) Administration of atropine: The symptoms the patient is exhibiting—cramping, diaphoresis, and increased oral secretions—are indicative of cholinergic toxicity. Edrophonium, a cholinesterase inhibitor, is used in the Tensilon test to diagnose myasthenia gravis by temporarily improving muscle strength. However, in some cases, the patient may experience a cholinergic crisis from an overdose of the medication, resulting in excess acetylcholine at synapses, which overstimulates the parasympathetic nervous system. Atropine, an anticholinergic agent, blocks the effects of acetylcholine and is used to reverse these symptoms by reducing the excessive parasympathetic activity (e.g., reducing secretions and improving heart rate).

C) Place the patient in the Trendelenburg position: The Trendelenburg position (head down, feet up) is often used in cases of shock to help increase venous return to the heart. However, it is not appropriate for a cholinergic crisis. The patient’s symptoms are not due to hypotension or shock but are related to an overdose of edrophonium causing parasympathetic overstimulation.

D) Administer diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for the allergic reaction: The symptoms the patient is experiencing (cramping, diaphoresis, increased oral secretions) are not related to an allergic reaction. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is an antihistamine used for allergic reactions, such as urticaria or anaphylaxis, but it does not treat cholinergic toxicity.

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A nurse is assessing a client who has been recently diagnosed with Bell's palsy. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? [Select all that apply.]

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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