A nurse is assessing a client who is postpartum and has developed endometritis.
Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Chills.
Back pain.
Bradycardia.
Agitation.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Chills are a systemic manifestation of an infectious process and are commonly associated with endometritis. Endometritis is an infection of the uterine lining, which can cause a systemic inflammatory response. This response often includes fever and chills, as the body's immune system fights the invading pathogens, causing a thermoregulatory cascade. A temperature of 100.4°F (38°C) or higher is typical.
Choice B rationale
Back pain can occur with various postpartum conditions, but it is not a primary or specific finding for endometritis. While uterine cramping and pelvic pain are characteristic due to the uterine inflammation, back pain is not as specific. More classic signs are fever, lower abdominal pain, uterine tenderness, and foul-smelling lochia due to the presence of bacteria.
Choice C rationale
Tachycardia, not bradycardia, is an expected finding in a client with endometritis. Tachycardia is a physiological response to fever, infection, and the systemic inflammatory process. The heart rate increases to compensate for increased metabolic demand and to circulate immune cells more efficiently. Bradycardia would be an unusual and unexpected finding.
Choice D rationale
Agitation is not a primary or typical finding of endometritis. Endometritis is a physical infection of the uterine lining. While discomfort and fever may cause irritability, agitation is not a specific expected symptom. This finding is more associated with neurological or psychiatric conditions, or severe complications like septic shock, which is a more advanced state. *.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Measuring the client's legs with a tape measure is the correct action to ensure proper sizing of the antiembolic stockings. Correct sizing is critical for effective venous compression and to prevent complications such as skin irritation, tissue damage, or impaired circulation. Stockings that are too tight can act as a tourniquet, while those that are too loose will not provide the necessary graduated compression to facilitate venous return and prevent blood stasis, which is the underlying cause of deep-vein thrombosis. This precise measurement ensures the stockings fit snugly and provide optimal therapeutic benefit.
Choice B rationale
Removing the stockings every 24 hours is an insufficient interval for skin integrity checks and to allow for proper cleaning and assessment. The standard practice involves removing antiembolic stockings at least twice daily for a short period. This allows the nurse to inspect the client's skin for any signs of pressure, irritation, or breakdown, and to perform hygiene. Prolonged, continuous wear without breaks can compromise skin integrity and increase the risk of developing pressure injuries, especially in a client who is less mobile due to their condition.
Choice C rationale
Folding the stockings at the top is a harmful and dangerous practice. Folding creates a constrictive band around the client's leg, which acts as a tourniquet. This constriction impedes venous and lymphatic return, leading to increased risk of blood stasis, edema, and tissue damage. The pressure from the folded band can severely compromise circulation and potentially worsen the client's underlying deep-vein thrombosis. The stockings should be smooth and wrinkle-free to provide uniform graduated compression.
Choice D rationale
Massaging the legs of a client with deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) is contraindicated and can be extremely dangerous. Massaging can dislodge the thrombus (blood clot) from the venous wall. If the clot becomes dislodged, it can travel through the bloodstream, leading to a pulmonary embolism (PE), a life-threatening condition where the clot obstructs a pulmonary artery in the lungs. Therefore, any form of massage or direct pressure on the affected limb is strictly avoided to prevent this potentially fatal complication. *.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Postterm pregnancy, defined as a gestation extending beyond 42 weeks, is not a contraindication for misoprostol. In fact, it is a common indication for labor induction, as the placenta may begin to deteriorate, increasing the risk of fetal distress and meconium aspiration. Misoprostol, a prostaglandin E1 analog, helps ripen the cervix and stimulate uterine contractions. This pharmacologic action is beneficial in initiating labor in postterm pregnancies.
Choice B rationale
Transverse fetal lie is an obstetrical position where the fetus is lying sideways across the uterus. This position poses a significant risk of complications during vaginal birth, including uterine rupture and umbilical cord prolapse. Therefore, any attempt to induce labor with a medication like misoprostol is contraindicated. Cesarean delivery is typically the preferred method of delivery in cases of persistent transverse lie to ensure a safe delivery for both mother and fetus.
Choice C rationale
Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) is a condition where a fetus is smaller than expected for gestational age. It is not a contraindication for misoprostol. Often, IUGR is an indication for labor induction to prevent further fetal compromise. Misoprostol is a commonly used medication for this purpose, as it helps to initiate cervical ripening and uterine contractions, which can lead to a successful vaginal delivery.
Choice D rationale
A history of a cesarean section is a significant contraindication for misoprostol because it substantially increases the risk of uterine rupture. Misoprostol causes potent uterine contractions that can place undue stress on the uterine scar from the previous surgery. The risk of rupture is a life-threatening complication for both the mother and the fetus. Therefore, other methods of labor induction or a planned repeat cesarean section are often considered. *.
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