A nurse is assessing a client who received hydromorphone 4 mg IV 15 min ago.
The client has a respiratory rate of 10/min.
The nurse should prepare to administer which of the following medications? .
Diazepam
Acetaminophen.
Ibuprofen.
Naloxone.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Diazepam (Valium) is not the correct choice in this situation. Diazepam is a sedative and muscle relaxant but would not address the respiratory depression caused by hydromorphone. The client's respiratory rate of 10/min indicates a potential opioid overdose, and the appropriate intervention is to administer naloxone to reverse the opioid effects.
Choice B rationale:
Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is not the correct choice in this scenario. Acetaminophen is a pain reliever and fever reducer but would not address the respiratory depression caused by hydromorphone. The priority is to address the respiratory depression promptly with naloxone.
Choice C rationale:
Ibuprofen (Advil) is not the correct choice in this situation. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used for pain and inflammation but is not appropriate for reversing opioid-induced respiratory depression. Naloxone is the drug of choice to reverse opioid overdose in this case.
Choice D rationale:
Naloxone (Narcan) is the correct choice. Naloxone is an opioid receptor antagonist used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose, including respiratory depression. Given the client's low respiratory rate, naloxone should be administered promptly to counteract the effects of hydromorphone. This is the most appropriate and potentially life-saving intervention for this client.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Naproxen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) and can increase the risk of bleeding when used with warfarin, which is an anticoagulant medication. Combining these two medications can lead to excessive bleeding and is considered incompatible.
Choice B rationale:
Magnesium hydroxide is an antacid and does not have significant interactions with warfarin. It does not affect the anticoagulant properties of warfarin.
Choice C rationale:
Lisinopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure. It does not have a significant interaction with warfarin.
Choice D rationale:
Propranolol is a beta-blocker used to treat high blood pressure, angina, and other heart conditions. It does not have a significant interaction with warfarin.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Requesting a provider to evaluate the client in person every 36 hours might be necessary in certain situations but is not directly related to the management of a client in seclusion and restraints. It does not ensure the immediate safety and well-being of the client in this scenario.
Choice B rationale:
Documenting the client's behavior every 15 minutes is essential when a client is in seclusion and restraints. Regular and detailed documentation is crucial to monitor the client's response to the intervention, ensuring their safety, and providing necessary information for the healthcare team.
Choice C rationale:
Ensuring that the prescription for restraints be renewed every 6 hours is important to prevent unnecessary or prolonged use of restraints, but it doesn't address the immediate need for monitoring the client in seclusion and restraints.
Choice D rationale:
Monitoring the client every 30 minutes while restrained might not provide timely information, especially if the client's condition deteriorates rapidly. More frequent monitoring, such as every 15 minutes, allows for closer observation and quicker response to any changes in the client's status.
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