A nurse is assessing a client with severe pre-eclampsia who is receiving magnesium sulfate infusion.
Which finding should alert the nurse to suspect magnesium toxicity?
Respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min
Deep tendon reflexes of 2+
Urine output of 40 mL/hour
Serum magnesium level of 6 mq/L
The Correct Answer is A
Respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min.
This is a sign of magnesium toxicity, which can occur when a client receives magnesium sulfate infusion for severe pre-eclampsia. Magnesium toxicity can cause muscle weakness, difficulty breathing, irregular heartbeats, and cardiac arrest.
Choice B is wrong because deep tendon reflexes of 2+ are normal and do not indicate magnesium toxicity.
Choice C is wrong because urine output of 40 mL/hour is adequate and does not indicate magnesium toxicity.
The minimum urine output for an adult is 30 mL/hour.
Choice D is wrong because serum magnesium level of 6 mEq/L is within the normal range of 1.7 to 2.3 mEq/L and does not indicate magnesium toxicity. Magnesium levels above 2.6 mEq/L can indicate hypermagnesemia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Stop the magnesium sulfate infusion.
The client is showing signs of magnesium toxicity, such as absent deep tendon reflexes, which can lead to respiratory depression and cardiac arrest.
Magnesium sulfate is an anticonvulsant that is used to prevent seizures in eclampsia, but it can also cause vasodilation and hypotension.
The nurse should stop the infusion and monitor the client’s vital signs and neurological status.
Choice B. Increase the rate of the hydralazine infusion is wrong because hydralazine is an antihypertensive that lowers blood pressure.
The client’s blood pressure is already within the normal range for eclampsia (140/90 to 160/110 mmHg), so increasing the rate of hydralazine could cause hypotension and compromise placental perfusion.
Choice C. Administer calcium gluconate IV push is wrong because calcium gluconate is an antidote for magnesium toxicity, but it should not be given IV push.
It should be given slowly over 10 to 20 minutes to avoid cardiac arrhythmias and bradycardia.
Choice D. Prepare for immediate delivery of the fetus is wrong because delivery of the fetus is not indicated at this time.
The client’s vital signs are stable and there is no evidence of fetal distress or placental abruption.
Delivery of the fetus is the definitive treatment for eclampsia, but it should be done when the maternal and fetal conditions are optimal.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Turn the client to the side.This is because turning the client to the side will prevent aspiration of secretions or vomitus and maintain a patent airway during a seizure.
This is the most important and immediate action to take for a client with eclampsia who is having a tonic-clonic seizure.
Choice A is wrong because administering oxygen via face mask is not the first priority and may not be feasible during a seizure.Oxygen therapy may be indicated after the seizure to improve oxygenation and fetal well-being.
Choice C is wrong because inserting an oral airway is contraindicated during a seizure as it may cause injury to the oral mucosa or trigger a gag reflex.An oral airway may be used after the seizure if the client is unconscious and has a compromised airway.
Choice D is wrong because giving a loading dose of magnesium sulfate is not the first action to take, although it is an important intervention to prevent further seizures and lower blood pressure in eclampsia.Magnesium sulfate should be administered intravenously after securing the airway and ensuring adequate ventilation.
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