A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who had preeclampsia and delivered her baby 2 days ago.
Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
“You can stop taking your blood pressure medication now that you have delivered your baby.”
“You should avoid breastfeeding your baby until your blood pressure is normal.”
“You should report any headache or visual changes to your doctor immediately.”
“You should limit your fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.”
The Correct Answer is C
The nurse should instruct the client to report any headache or visual changes to the doctor immediately, as these are signs of worsening preeclampsia that can lead to serious complications such as stroke, eclampsia, or HELLP syndrome. Preeclampsia can persist or even begin after delivery, most often within 48 hours, so the client should monitor her blood pressure and symptoms until they resolve.
Choice A is wrong because the client should not stop taking her blood pressure medication without consulting her doctor. Blood pressure medication helps lower the blood pressure and protects the organs from damage. The blood pressure usually returns to normal within several days to weeks after delivery, but some clients may need medication for longer.
Choice B is wrong because the client should not avoid breastfeeding her baby unless there is a medical reason to do so. Breastfeeding has many benefits for both the mother and the baby, and does not affect the blood pressure or the preeclampsia.
Choice D is wrong because the client should not limit her fluid intake to prevent fluid overload. Fluid overload is not a common complication of preeclampsia, and limiting fluids can cause dehydration and affect the milk supply for breastfeeding.
The client should drink enough fluids to stay hydrated and follow a balanced diet.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The client has no seizures.Magnesium sulfate therapy is used to prevent seizures in women with preeclampsia and eclampsia.Seizures are a life-threatening complication of eclampsia and indicate a failure of therapy.
Choice B is wrong because diuresis is not a goal of magnesium sulfate therapy.Diuresis may indicate fluid overload or renal impairment, which are complications of preeclampsia and eclampsia.
Choice C is wrong because improved fetal movement is not a direct outcome of magnesium sulfate therapy.Fetal movement may be affected by many factors, such as gestational age, maternal position, and fetal well-being.
Choice D is wrong because increased platelet count is not a result of magnesium sulfate therapy.Platelet count may be decreased in preeclampsia and eclampsia due to disseminated intravascular coagulation, which is a serious complication that requires prompt treatment.
Normal ranges for blood pressure are less than 140/90 mm Hg, for proteinuria are less than 300 mg/24 hours, for platelet count are 150,000 to 400,000/mm3, and for serum magnesium are 1.5 to 2.5 mEq/L.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity because it reverses the effects of magnesium on the neuromuscular and cardiovascular systems.
Magnesium sulfate can cause respiratory depression, hypotension, bradycardia, and cardiac arrest in high doses.
Choice B. Naloxone is wrong because it is the antidote for opioid overdose, not magnesium sulfate toxicity.
Naloxone blocks the opioid receptors and restores breathing and consciousness.
Choice C. Flumazenil is wrong because it is the antidote for benzodiazepine overdose, not magnesium sulfate toxicity.
Flumazenil binds to the benzodiazepine receptors and reverses the sedative and hypnotic effects.
Choice D. Protamine sulfate is wrong because it is the antidote for heparin overdose, not magnesium sulfate toxicity.
Protamine sulfate neutralizes the anticoagulant effect of heparin and prevents bleeding.
Normal ranges for magnesium are 1.5 to 2.5 mEq/L or 0.75 to 1.25 mmol/L.
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