A nurse is assessing a client with suspected myocardial infarction (MI). Which assessment finding is most indicative of an acute MI?
Sharp, stabbing chest pain.
Chest pain relieved by rest and nitroglycerin.
Sudden, severe chest pain radiating to the back.
Mild, intermittent chest discomfort during activity.
The Correct Answer is C
A) This choice is incorrect because sharp, stabbing chest pain is not the typical presentation of an acute MI. It is more common in conditions like pleuritis or pneumothorax.
B) This choice is incorrect because chest pain relieved by rest and nitroglycerin is more characteristic of stable angina, not an acute MI. Acute MI pain is typically not relieved by these measures.
C) This choice is correct. Sudden, severe chest pain that radiates to the back is a classic presentation of an acute myocardial infarction. The pain is often described as crushing or pressure-like and may be accompanied by other symptoms such as shortness of breath, diaphoresis, and nausea.
D) This choice is incorrect because mild, intermittent chest discomfort during activity is more typical of stable angina, not an acute MI. Acute MI pain is usually more severe, prolonged, and occurs at rest or with minimal exertion.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) This choice is incorrect because fibrinolytic therapy is not used to reduce heart rate and blood pressure. Its primary purpose is to dissolve blood clots that are causing the myocardial infarction.
B) This choice is correct. Fibrinolytic therapy, also known as thrombolytic therapy, is used to break down existing blood clots in coronary arteries during an ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). By dissolving the clot, blood flow to the heart muscle can be restored and prevent further damage.
C) This choice is incorrect because stabilizing the heart's electrical activity is not the primary purpose of fibrinolytic therapy. It is used to address the mechanical obstruction caused by the clot in coronary arteries.
D) This choice is incorrect because although fibrinolytic therapy does improve blood flow to the heart muscle by dissolving clots, its primary purpose is not to improve oxygen supply directly. Rather, it aims to restore blood flow by eliminating the clot causing the infarction.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) This choice is incorrect because a family history of coronary artery disease is a non-modifiable risk factor for angina pectoris. It increases the client's risk but cannot be altered through lifestyle changes.
B) This choice is incorrect because age over 65 years old is a non-modifiable risk factor for angina pectoris. While the risk of angina increases with age, it cannot be changed through lifestyle modifications.
C) This choice is correct. Hypertension (high blood pressure) is a modifiable risk factor for angina. Managing blood pressure through lifestyle changes, medications, and other interventions can help reduce the risk of developing angina and other cardiovascular diseases.
D) This choice is incorrect because gender (male) is a non-modifiable risk factor for angina pectoris. While men are generally at higher risk for angina than premenopausal women, gender cannot be changed to alter the risk.
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