A nurse is assessing a client’s IV infusion site and notes that the site is cool and edematous.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Initiate a new IV distal to the initial site.
Slow the IV solution rate.
Maintain the extremity below the level of the heart.
Apply a warm, moist compress.
The Correct Answer is D
The most appropriate action for the nurse to take in this situation is:
d. Apply a warm, moist compress.
Here's why the other options are not recommended:
- a. Initiate a new IV distal to the initial site: This is not the first course of action. While starting a new IV might be necessary eventually, it's crucial to address the issue at the current site first.
- b. Slow the IV solution rate: Slowing the rate doesn't directly address the coolness and edema, which indicate potential infiltration or extravasation.
- c. Maintain the extremity below the level of the heart: This action would actually worsen the edema by promoting fluid accumulation at the site.
Applying a warm, moist compress can help promote absorption of any leaked fluid and improve circulation at the site. However, it's important to remember that this is just one step in the process. The nurse should also:
- Stop the IV infusion.
- Assess the extent of the infiltration or extravasation.
- Document the findings.
- Elevate the affected extremity.
- Consult with a physician for further instructions and potential treatment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Naloxone is a drug that reverses the effects of opioids, such as morphine, by blocking their receptors in the brain. One of the adverse effects of morphine is respiratory depression, which means it slows down breathing and can lead to hypoxia (low oxygen levels) or death. Naloxone can restore normal breathing and prevent further harm from opioid overdose. Therefore, an increased respiratory rate is a therapeutic effect of naloxone.
Choice A is wrong because decreased blood pressure is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone.
In fact, naloxone can cause hypertension (high blood pressure) as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.
Choice B is wrong because decreased nausea is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone. Nausea is a common side effect of morphine, but naloxone does not affect it directly.
Naloxone can actually cause nausea and vomiting as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.
Choice D is wrong because increased pain relief is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone.
Pain relief is a desired effect of morphine, but naloxone antagonizes it by blocking the opioid receptors.
Naloxone can cause pain and discomfort as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This site is preferred for peripheral IV catheter placement because it is comfortable, has good blood flow, and has a lower risk of complications than the dominant arm or the antecubital fossa.
Choice A is wrong because the dominant antecubital basilic vein is more prone to dislodgement, thrombosis, and thrombophlebitis due to frequent movement of the elbow joint.
Choice B is wrong because the nondominant dorsal venous arch is a distal site that may have poor blood flow and higher resistance to infusion. It should be avoided unless there are no other options.
Choice C is wrong because the dominant distal dorsal vein is also a distal site that may have poor blood flow and higher resistance to infusion. It should be avoided unless there are no other options.
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