A nurse is assisting in the care of a client who had a vaginal birth yesterday, is not breastfeeding, and had no perineal lacerations. The client was given ibuprofen 1 hr ago.
Which of the following outcomes should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication achieved the desired effect?
Decrease in swelling in the extremities.
Decrease in discomfort from contractions.
Decrease in milk production.
Decrease in amount of lochia and passage of clots.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
While ibuprofen can reduce general inflammation, its primary use in the postpartum period is not aimed at reducing swelling in the extremities, making this a less relevant outcome for the medication's effectiveness.
Choice B rationale
Ibuprofen is an effective analgesic for reducing discomfort from uterine contractions, known as afterpains, which occur as the uterus involutes post-delivery. A decrease in this type of discomfort indicates the medication has achieved its desired effect.
Choice C rationale
Ibuprofen does not have an effect on milk production; therefore, a decrease in milk production is not an expected or desired outcome of administering this medication to a postpartum client.
Choice D rationale
Ibuprofen is not intended to reduce lochia or the passage of clots. These are normal postpartum processes, and their reduction would not be an expected outcome of ibuprofen administration.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
0.2 mg is the appropriate transcription as it avoids trailing zeros and clearly indicates the dosage, reducing the risk of overdose.
Choice B rationale
0.20 mg is incorrect because the trailing zero could be misinterpreted as 20 mg, leading to a dangerous overdose.
Choice C rationale
2 mg is incorrect as it represents a tenfold overdose of the intended dosage, potentially resulting in serious harm.
Choice D rationale
0.02 mg is incorrect as it represents a tenfold underdose of the intended dosage, potentially resulting in insufficient therapeutic effect. .
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A BMI of 28 is considered overweight, which can be a risk factor for preeclampsia but is not as strong an indicator as gestational hypertension. BMI alone does not automatically place someone at high risk.
Choice B rationale
Age of 24 is within the typical childbearing age range and is not considered a high-risk factor for preeclampsia. Extremes of maternal age (below 18 or above 35) are more significant risk factors.
Choice C rationale
Gestational hypertension is a significant risk factor for developing preeclampsia. It indicates elevated blood pressure during pregnancy, which can lead to preeclampsia if not managed properly.
Choice D rationale
Gravida 3 Para 2 indicates a woman who has had two previous pregnancies carried to viable gestational age. While multiparity can influence pregnancy outcomes, it is not a direct high-risk factor for preeclampsia like gestational hypertension is. .
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