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A nurse is assisting with the care of a 14-year old client in the emergency department (ED) who has anorexia nervosa.

Physical Examination

Client appears preoccupied and displays poor concentration but is oriented X3. Client has very thin appearance, measuring 5 feet 2 inches tall and weighing 42.6 kg (94 lb). This calculates to 81% of ideal target weight. Client skin color is pallor with capillary refill greater than 2 seconds. When asked about fainting, client minimizes it and comments. "I was just tired. it was nothing."

Which of the following 5 findings require immediate follow-up by the nurse?

Sodium level

Blood pressure

Respiratory rate

Capillary refill

Glucose level

Phosphate level

Magnesium level

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : A,B,D

A. Sodium level: Correct. Sodium imbalances can have serious consequences, including neurological symptoms. Hyponatremia is a common electrolyte imbalance seen in anorexia nervosa.

B. Blood pressure: Correct. Abnormal blood pressure, especially low blood pressure, can indicate cardiovascular compromise, which is a concern in severe cases of anorexia nervosa.

C. Respiratory rate: Not selected. While monitoring respiratory rate is important, the client's pallor and capillary refill suggest potential issues with peripheral perfusion, making capillary refill more urgent.

D. Capillary refill: Correct. Prolonged capillary refill time is a measure of peripheral perfusion and may indicate poor tissue perfusion, requiring immediate attention.

E. Glucose level: Not selected. While monitoring glucose levels is important, hypoglycemia might not be an immediate concern in this scenario. The client's neurological symptoms may be more related to electrolyte imbalances.

F. Phosphate level: Not selected. Monitoring phosphate levels is important, but severe abnormalities may not require immediate follow-up unless other critical issues are addressed first.

G. Magnesium level: Not selected. Magnesium imbalances are significant but may not require immediate follow-up unless severe abnormalities are noted.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Stating that the medication will prevent depression is not accurate. Risperidone primarily addresses symptoms of psychosis and does not specifically target depression.

B. Indicating that the medication will improve mood is not the primary purpose of risperidone. Its focus is on managing psychotic symptoms rather than directly impacting mood.

C. Mentioning that the medication will decrease anxiety is not the primary action of risperidone. While it might indirectly reduce anxiety associated with psychotic symptoms, it's not its primary function.

D. "This medication will clear your thinking."
Risperidone is an antipsychotic medication commonly used to manage symptoms of schizophrenia, including hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking. While it won't directly improve mood, decrease anxiety, or prevent depression, it aims to alleviate symptoms related to psychosis, allowing for clearer and more organized thinking by reducing hallucinations and delusions.

A. To treat hallucinations and perform better at work B. Because they witnessed their parents using drugs or alcohol to cope C. To promote sleep and rest D. To treat pain and ease anxiety

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Using opioids to treat hallucinations is not a common reason, as opioids are not typically prescribed for this purpose. Hallucinations might be indicative of another underlying mental health condition that needs assessment and appropriate treatment.

B. Witnessing parents using drugs or alcohol to cope is a risk factor for substance use disorders, but it does not directly explain the client's initiation of opioid use. There may be other contributing factors, such as pain or anxiety.

C. Using opioids to promote sleep and rest is a possibility, especially if the client has chronic pain or anxiety affecting their sleep. Opioids can have sedative effects, which might be appealing to individuals experiencing sleep difficulties. However, treating pain and anxiety is often a primary reason for opioid use in such cases.

D. To treat pain and ease anxiety.
Chronic back pain due to a gymnastics injury and anxiety are identified as pre-existing conditions. The client may have started using opioids to manage chronic pain and potentially as a way to cope with anxiety. Opioids are often prescribed for pain relief, and individuals may misuse them to self-medicate emotional distress.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who has paranoid schizophrenia and a new prescription for risperidone. The client asks the nurse what the s is supposed to do. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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