A nurse in a mental health facility is caring for a client who becomes upset and breaks a chair when a visitor does not arrive. The client remains agitated following initial verbal attempts to calm him down. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?
Plan with the client for how he can better handle frustration.
Place the client in a monitored seclusion room until he is calm.
Offer the client an antianxiety medication.
Restrain the client to prevent injury to himself or others.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Planning with the client for how he can better handle frustration is a valuable intervention, but it may not be immediately effective in the midst of heightened agitation. It is better suited for a calmer, more reflective time.
B. Placing the client in a monitored seclusion room until he is calm (option B) is an option for managing extreme agitation, but it should be used cautiously and as a last resort. Offering medication and attempting verbal de-escalation are generally preferable initial steps.
C. Offer the client an antianxiety medication.
When dealing with a client who is agitated and potentially escalating to a more volatile state, offering an antianxiety medication can be a helpful and immediate intervention to manage acute distress. It can aid in calming the client down and create an environment where other therapeutic interventions can be more effectively implemented.
D. Restraining the client to prevent injury to himself or others (option D) is a highly invasive intervention and should only be considered when there is an imminent risk of harm to the client or others. It is generally not the first choice in managing agitation due to its potential negative impact on the therapeutic relationship and the client's well-being.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Elevated heart rate is not a typical sign of opioid toxicity. Opioids usually have a depressant effect on the cardiovascular system, leading to bradycardia.
B. Hypertension is not a typical effect of opioid toxicity. Opioids often cause hypotension due to vasodilation.
C. Pupillary constriction (miosis).
Acute fentanyl toxicity is associated with opioid overdose, and opioids typically cause miosis (constriction of the pupils). Other common symptoms of opioid toxicity include respiratory depression, sedation, and potentially unconsciousness.
D. Tachypnea is not a typical sign of opioid toxicity. Opioids tend to depress the respiratory system, leading to respiratory depression and potentially hypoventilation.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Exploring reasons for her behavior is important for understanding the underlying issues, but the immediate priority is to ensure the client's safety.
B. Providing strategies for redirecting violent behavior is a relevant intervention, but it is not the priority in this situation. Safety concerns related to self-harm take precedence.
C. Encouraging the client to talk about her feelings is a valuable therapeutic intervention, but in the context of borderline personality disorder, the immediate priority is to address the risk of self-harm. Once the client's safety is ensured, exploring feelings and developing coping strategies can be part of the ongoing therapeutic process.
D. Protecting the client from self-harm behavior is the priority because individuals with borderline personality disorder are at an increased risk of engaging in self-harming behaviors,
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