A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate IV at 2 g/hr. Which of the following findings indicates that it is safe for the nurse to continue the infusion?
Respiratory rate of 16/min.
Heart rate of 60/min.
Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hr.
Diminished deep-tendon reflexes.
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A: Respiratory rate of 16/min.
Choice A rationale:
A respiratory rate of 16/min is within the normal range for adults, which is typically between 12 to 20 breaths per minute. In the context of severe preeclampsia, maintaining a normal respiratory rate is crucial when administering magnesium sulfate IV, as one of the signs of magnesium toxicity is respiratory depression. Therefore, a respiratory rate of 16/min indicates that the client is not experiencing respiratory depression and it is safe to continue the magnesium sulfate infusion.
Choice B rationale:
A heart rate of 60/min is at the lower end of the normal range, which is 60 to 100 beats per minute for adults. However, bradycardia or a low heart rate can be a sign of magnesium sulfate toxicity, especially if accompanied by other symptoms such as hypotension or altered mental status. Without additional context, a heart rate of 60/min alone does not necessarily indicate it is unsafe to continue the infusion, but it would require further assessment.
Choice C rationale:
A urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours is significantly below the expected minimum of 30 mL/hour for adults. Adequate urine output is an important indicator of kidney function and is essential for the excretion of magnesium. In the case of magnesium sulfate infusion for severe preeclampsia, a low urine output could indicate renal insufficiency and an increased risk of magnesium toxicity. Therefore, a urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours is a contraindication for continuing the infusion without further evaluation.
Choice D rationale:
Diminished deep-tendon reflexes can be a sign of magnesium toxicity. Deep-tendon reflexes are assessed to monitor for signs of magnesium overdose during infusion, as magnesium acts as a central nervous system depressant at high levels. If deep-tendon reflexes are diminished, it may suggest that the serum magnesium levels are too high, and the infusion should be paused or discontinued to prevent further toxicity.
In summary, the only finding that clearly indicates it is safe to continue the magnesium sulfate infusion is a normal respiratory rate, as provided in choice A. The other options either require further assessment or are indicators of potential magnesium toxicity.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice D rationale:
The correct answer is Choice D. The biophysical profile is a prenatal test used to assess fetal well-being in the third trimester of pregnancy. It is not used to determine the estimated date of birth (Choice A), as that is typically calculated based on the first day of the last menstrual period and confirmed or adjusted by early ultrasounds.
The test also does not require the client to be NPO (nothing by mouth) for 8 hours prior to the test (Choice B). This restriction is commonly associated with certain medical procedures, but it is not applicable to the biophysical profile.
Furthermore, there is no need to initiate an IV (intravenous line) before the biophysical profile (Choice C). The test is non-invasive and involves the use of ultrasound and fetal heart rate monitoring. The biophysical profile assesses several fetal parameters, such as fetal movement, fetal tone, fetal breathing movements, amniotic fluid volume, and the fetal heart rate. These parameters help evaluate the well-being and health of the baby. The test is often recommended in cases of high-risk pregnancies, decreased fetal movement, or other conditions that may warrant closer monitoring of the baby's condition. By knowing that the biophysical profile predicts fetal well-being in the third trimester, the nurse can provide accurate information to the client, reassuring them about the health of their baby and explaining the importance of the test in ensuring a safe delivery and healthy outcome.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should schedule a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) for the client because the blood glucose levels taken 1 hour following a meal are higher than the expected range for gestational diabetes. This test will help to diagnose and assess the client's glucose tolerance and determine if there is gestational diabetes or any other potential glucose regulation issues.
Choice B rationale:
Increasing carbohydrates to 65% of daily nutritional intake is not the appropriate action in this situation. It may lead to further elevation of blood glucose levels, which can be detrimental for a client with gestational diabetes. The goal is to manage blood glucose levels and prevent complications, so recommending a higher carbohydrate intake would be counterproductive.
Choice C rationale:
Obtaining an HbA1c (glycated hemoglobin) is not the most suitable action in this scenario. HbA1c provides an average of the blood glucose levels over the past few months, which is more helpful for diagnosing and monitoring chronic diabetes, rather than gestational diabetes, which is temporary and occurs during pregnancy. An OGTT is a more appropriate test for gestational diabetes assessment.
Choice D rationale:
Reinforcing instruction about insulin administration is not warranted at this point since there is no information indicating that the client is currently on insulin therapy. Additionally, using insulin as the first step in the management of gestational diabetes is not common practice. Lifestyle modifications, dietary changes, and other measures are usually attempted first.
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