A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is in labor about why epidural anesthesia is not initiated until a good labor pattern has been established. Which of the following explanations should the nurse include?
"Given too soon, epidural anesthesia will delay rupture of fetal membranes.".
"Given too soon, epidural anesthesia can prolong labor.".
"Given too soon, epidural anesthesia can cause fetal depression.".
"Given too soon, epidural anesthesia can cause maternal hypertension.".
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason:
Initiating epidural anesthesia too soon may delay rupture of fetal membranes. This statement is not accurate. Epidural anesthesia itself does not have a direct impact on the rupture of fetal membranes. The timing of rupturing membranes is determined based on the progress of labor and other clinical indications. There is no causal relationship between epidural anesthesia and the timing of membrane rupture.
Choice B reason:
Initiating epidural anesthesia too soon can prolong labor. This statement is correct. Epidural anesthesia, while providing pain relief during labor, can also cause some degree of motor blockage and decrease the woman's ability to push effectively. This can potentially lead to a lengthening of the labor process. It is generally recommended to wait until a good labor pattern has been established to avoid unnecessary prolongation of labor.
Choice C reason:
Initiating epidural anesthesia too soon can cause fetal depression. This statement is not entirely accurate. Epidural anesthesia can cross the placenta and reach the fetus, but the effect on the baby is usually minimal. However, fetal monitoring is essential during labor to ensure the baby's well-being, regardless of whether epidural anesthesia is used or not.
Choice D reason:
Initiating epidural anesthesia too soon can cause maternal hypertension. This statement is not supported by evidence. Epidural anesthesia does not typically cause maternal hypertension. It can, however, lead to a decrease in blood pressure in some cases, which is why careful monitoring of maternal blood pressure is necessary during and after the administration of epidural anesthesia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Stimulate the infant to cry. While stimulating the infant to cry is a common practice to assess the newborn's respiratory function, it is not the first action the nurse should perform in this situation. The newborn may cry spontaneously or may require other interventions, such as clearing the respiratory tract, before crying.
Choice B rationale:
Clear the respiratory tract. Clearing the respiratory tract is the priority action in this scenario. It ensures that the airway is open and allows the infant to breathe effectively. This is crucial because newborns are at higher risk of respiratory distress after birth, and prompt action can prevent complications.
Choice C rationale:
Dry the infant off and cover the head. Drying the infant off and covering the head are important steps to prevent heat loss and maintain the newborn's body temperature. However, these actions can be delayed briefly until the respiratory tract is cleared, as the immediate focus should be on ensuring the infant's ability to breathe.
Choice D rationale:
Clamp the umbilical cord. Clamping the umbilical cord is a standard procedure after birth to prevent bleeding and infection. However, it is not the priority in this situation. The first step should be to ensure the newborn's airway is clear and they can breathe adequately.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Rh incompatibility is not relevant in this scenario. Rh incompatibility refers to a condition where the mother's blood is Rh-negative, and the baby's blood is Rh-positive, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. However, this condition is unrelated to the client's current presentation of heavy, red vaginal bleeding without contractions.
Choice B rationale:
Frequency and duration of contractions are not the primary concern in this situation. The client's main complaint is heavy vaginal bleeding without contractions, which indicates a potential issue with the placenta or other pregnancy-related problems.
Choice C rationale:
Fetal lung maturity is not the priority at this stage. The client is at 38 weeks of gestation, which is considered full term. Fetal lung maturity is typically assessed if there's a need for early delivery, which is not indicated in this scenario.
Choice D rationale:
The correct choice. The client is experiencing heavy, red vaginal bleeding, which may be a sign of placental abruption, where the placenta separates from the uterine wall prematurely. Determining the location of the placenta through an ultrasound can help identify if placental abruption is the cause of bleeding. Placental abruption can be a serious condition that requires immediate medical attention.
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