A nurse is caring for a 36-year-old female client who is at 30 weeks of gestation in the antepartum unit.
Select the 3 factors that increase the client’s risk for preeclampsia.
Primigravida
Age
Type 1 diabetes mellitus
Hemoglobin level
Correct Answer : A,B,C
Choice A rationale: Primigravida
Primigravida (first-time pregnancy) is a known risk factor for preeclampsia. Studies show that nulliparous individuals (those who have never given birth before) have a higher likelihood of developing preeclampsia compared to multiparous individuals. The exact reason is not fully understood, but it is thought that immunological adaptation plays a role.
Choice B rationale: Age
Advanced maternal age (≥35 years) is a recognized risk factor for preeclampsia. This client is 36 years old, which places her in the higher-risk category. Older maternal age is associated with increased vascular dysfunction and underlying chronic conditions that predispose individuals to preeclampsia.
Choice C rationale: Type 1 diabetes mellitus
Type 1 diabetes mellitus significantly increases the risk of preeclampsia due to its impact on vascular health. Diabetes affects endothelial function and can cause chronic inflammation, both of which contribute to hypertension and proteinuria, hallmark symptoms of preeclampsia. Additionally, diabetes increases the risk of abnormal placentation, further raising the chances of hypertensive disorders in pregnancy.
Choice D rationale: Hemoglobin level
A hemoglobin level of 12.5 g/dL is within the normal range and does not contribute to an increased risk for preeclampsia. While anemia is sometimes associated with preeclampsia, a normal hemoglobin level does not raise concern in this case. Therefore, hemoglobin is not a risk factor for preeclampsia in this patient.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A,B"},"B":{"answers":"B"},"C":{"answers":"B"},"D":{"answers":"B"}}
Explanation
Rationales for Each Condition
Molar Pregnancy
- Abdominal Pain: In a molar pregnancy, the uterus enlarges disproportionately due to abnormal trophoblastic growth. This excessive expansion can cause discomfort or mild cramping.
- Blood Pressure: Molar pregnancies can be associated with gestational trophoblastic disease, which may lead to preeclampsia-like symptoms. However, this client’s blood pressure is currently within normal limits (120/78 mm Hg), so severe hypertension has not yet developed.
- Ultrasound Findings: The presence of grape-like vesicles within the uterus and the absence of a fetal heartbeat are hallmark findings of a molar pregnancy, indicating abnormal placental tissue proliferation.
- Perineal Pad Findings: The passage of small clear vesicles is a characteristic feature of a molar pregnancy, distinguishing it from other causes of vaginal bleeding in pregnancy.
Ectopic Pregnancy
- Abdominal Pain: Ectopic pregnancies often cause sharp lower abdominal pain due to tubal rupture or irritation. However, in this case, the client’s pain is mild and less suggestive of tubal rupture.
- Blood Pressure: If an ectopic pregnancy ruptures, hypotension due to internal bleeding would be expected. Since the client’s blood pressure is normal, this finding does not support an ectopic pregnancy.
- Ultrasound Findings: The absence of a fetal heartbeat and vesicular structures inside the uterus make ectopic pregnancy unlikely, as ectopic pregnancies typically occur in the fallopian tube.
- Perineal Pad Findings: Ectopic pregnancies rarely cause the passage of vesicular tissue, further suggesting that this is not an ectopic pregnancy.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Completely saturating a perineal pad within 15 minutes indicates excessive postpartum bleeding, which is most commonly caused by uterine atony (failure of the uterus to contract effectively after delivery). Massaging the fundus stimulates uterine muscles to contract, helping to compress blood vessels at the placental site and control bleeding. This is the priority intervention to prevent further blood loss and potential hemorrhage.
Choice B rationale
Assessing vital signs is important to evaluate the extent of blood loss and the woman's hemodynamic stability. However, the immediate priority is to address the cause of the excessive bleeding by promoting uterine contraction. Vital sign assessment should follow fundal massage.
Choice C rationale
Calling the primary health care provider is necessary to report the excessive bleeding and implement further management if fundal massage is not effective. However, the nurse's immediate action should be to address the likely cause of the bleeding through fundal massage.
Choice D rationale
Initiating an intravenous (IV) infusion of Ringer's lactate solution may be necessary to restore fluid volume if significant blood loss has occurred or continues. However, the immediate priority is to stop the bleeding by promoting uterine contraction through fundal massage. IV fluids are a subsequent intervention to support hemodynamic stability.
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