A nurse is caring for a 54-year-old male client who has been admitted to the hospital for peptic ulcer disease. The client will begin a long-term regimen of omeprazole (Prilosec). The nurse understands that the patient will be at high risk for developing which of the following complications? (Select All That Apply.)
Osteoporosis and fractures
Torsades de Pointes
Nausea
Rebound acid hypersecretion
Correct Answer : A,D
A. Long-term use of omeprazole is associated with an increased risk of osteoporosis and fractures due to decreased calcium absorption caused by reduced stomach acid. This complication is significant in older adults, particularly with prolonged therapy.
B. Torsades de Pointes is not a common complication of omeprazole. QT prolongation is more often linked to medications like ondansetron or antiarrhythmics.
C. Nausea is not a typical complication of omeprazole; rather, it is a symptom the drug may help alleviate as part of managing gastrointestinal conditions.
D. Rebound acid hypersecretion can occur after discontinuation of omeprazole. The body may produce an excessive amount of acid to compensate for the previous suppression, leading to worsening symptoms if the medication is abruptly stopped.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Hypothyroidism: This is incorrect. The client is taking levothyroxine (Synthroid) to treat hypothyroidism, and the symptoms described (diarrhea, weight loss, palpitations, heat intolerance) are more likely associated with excess thyroid hormone, not a lack of it.
B. Thyrotoxicosis: This is correct. The symptoms the client is experiencing—diarrhea, weight loss, palpitations, and heat intolerance—are classic signs of thyrotoxicosis, which occurs when there is an excess of thyroid hormone, possibly due to overtreatment with levothyroxine. These symptoms indicate that the thyroid hormone dose might need adjustment.
C. Addison's Disease: This is incorrect. Addison's disease is characterized by insufficient production of adrenal hormones and would typically manifest with symptoms such as fatigue, hypotension, and hyperpigmentation, not diarrhea or heat intolerance.
D. Cushing's Disease: This is incorrect. Cushing's disease is caused by excess cortisol and would typically result in symptoms such as weight gain, high blood pressure, and a round "moon" face, rather than the symptoms described in the question.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. 4 teaspoons – This is incorrect because 4 teaspoons would provide 400 mg (100 mg x 4 = 400 mg), but the correct dose per administration is 400 mg. However, this is not the correct calculation, as only 2 teaspoons are needed.
B. 2 teaspoons – This is correct. The prescribed dose is 400 mg, and since the medication concentration is 100 mg per teaspoon, 2 teaspoons (100 mg x 2 = 200 mg) is the correct dose for each administration.
C. 1 teaspoon – This is incorrect because 1 teaspoon would only provide 100 mg, and the prescribed dose is 400 mg. This is not enough to meet the prescribed dose.
D. 3 teaspoons – This is incorrect because 3 teaspoons would provide 300 mg (100 mg x 3 = 300 mg), which is not enough to meet the prescribed 400 mg dose.
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