A nurse is caring for a client who is taking metformin (Glucophage) and is scheduled to undergo angiography using iodine-containing contrast dye. The nurse should identify that an interaction between metformin and the IV contrast dye increases the client's risk for which of the following conditions?
Hyperglycemia
Acute renal failure
Acute pancreatitis
Acute liver failure
The Correct Answer is B
A. Hyperglycemia: While metformin is used to manage blood glucose levels in clients with diabetes, its interaction with contrast dye does not directly lead to hyperglycemia. However, the risk for kidney injury, which can affect glucose regulation, is a concern.
B. Acute renal failure: This is correct. The combination of metformin and iodine-containing contrast dye increases the risk of acute renal failure, also known as contrast-induced nephropathy (CIN). This occurs because contrast agents can cause kidney damage, and metformin is excreted by the kidneys. If renal function is impaired, the buildup of metformin can lead to lactic acidosis.
C. Acute pancreatitis: While acute pancreatitis is a possible side effect of metformin in some individuals, the primary concern with iodine-containing contrast dye is renal failure, not pancreatitis.
D. Acute liver failure: Metformin is primarily metabolized by the kidneys, not the liver, and does not commonly cause liver failure. Renal failure is the more pressing concern with the use of contrast dye in clients taking metformin.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Glucagon is not used to treat thyroid cancer; treatments for thyroid cancer often include radioactive iodine therapy or surgery.
B. Glucagon is used to treat severe hypoglycemia in diabetic patients when they are unable to take oral glucose. It works by stimulating the liver to release stored glucose into the bloodstream, rapidly raising blood sugar levels.
C. Diabetes insipidus involves a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone or kidney insensitivity to it and is treated with desmopressin or adequate hydration, not glucagon.
D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus is typically managed with lifestyle changes, oral antidiabetic agents, or insulin. Glucagon is not used for routine management but is reserved for severe hypoglycemia emergencies.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Prolonged QT interval – This is correct. Ondansetron can cause prolongation of the QT interval, increasing the risk of arrhythmias, including torsades de pointes. This is a serious complication that requires monitoring, particularly in clients with cardiac risks.
B. Extrapyramidal symptoms – This is incorrect. Ondansetron does not typically cause extrapyramidal symptoms, which are more associated with dopamine antagonists like metoclopramide or prochlorperazine.
C. Nausea – This is incorrect. Ondansetron is specifically used to treat nausea and vomiting, not to cause them. If nausea persists, it may indicate treatment failure or another underlying issue.
D. Vomiting – This is incorrect. Ondansetron is an antiemetic and works to prevent vomiting. Vomiting would not be a complication of this medication under proper use.
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