A nurse is caring for a 58-year-old client who is diagnosed with uterine cancer. Which of the following manifestations is likely to be reported by this client?
Postmenopausal bleeding
Green, malodorous vaginal discharge
Extreme abdominal pain with intercourse
Swelling on the posterior of the vulva
The Correct Answer is A
A. One of the most common and concerning symptoms of uterine (endometrial) cancer is abnormal vaginal bleeding, particularly postmenopausal bleeding. Any bleeding after menopause is considered abnormal and can be an indicator of uterine cancer, warranting further investigation.
B. While a malodorous vaginal discharge can occur due to infections or other gynecological issues, it is not a primary symptom of uterine cancer. Uterine cancer more commonly presents with bleeding rather than discharge.
C. While some women with advanced uterine cancer may experience pelvic pain or pain during intercourse (dyspareunia), this symptom is not as characteristic or early in the disease process. It is more associated with conditions like endometriosis or pelvic inflammatory disease.
D. This is not a typical manifestation of uterine cancer. While vulvar swelling may be seen in cases of vulvar cancer or infections, it is not a common symptom associated with uterine cancer specifically. Symptoms related to uterine cancer primarily focus on abnormal bleeding.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Trisomy 21 is a chromosomal disorder resulting in Down syndrome. While individuals with Down syndrome have an increased risk of developing certain leukemias (such as acute lymphoblastic leukemia), it is not directly associated with CML.
B. Fragile X syndrome is a genetic condition caused by a mutation in the FMR1 gene on the X chromosome, leading to intellectual disability and other developmental issues. It is not associated with CML or any form of leukemia. This option is unrelated to the genetic abnormalities seen in CML.
C. The BRCA1 gene mutation is associated with an increased risk of breast and ovarian cancers. While mutations in BRCA1 can affect cancer susceptibility, they are not linked to Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia. Thus, this option does not apply to CML.
D. The Philadelphia chromosome is a specific genetic abnormality found in the majority of patients with CML. It results from a translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22, creating the BCR-ABL fusion gene, which produces a tyrosine kinase that drives the proliferation of leukemic cells.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Using a cold compress is typically employed for reducing swelling or discomfort, but it does not address the visual deficits associated with homonymous hemianopia. This intervention would not assist the client in compensating for their visual field loss.
B. Teaching scanning techniques involves training the client to actively search for visual information from their affected side. This can include turning their head and using their eyes to scan to the left (for right homonymous hemianopia) or to the right (for left homonymous hemianopia). This compensatory strategy is crucial for helping the client navigate their environment safely and effectively during rehabilitation.
C. Applying an eye patch is not appropriate for homonymous hemianopia, as it may further limit visual input. In fact, patching could exacerbate difficulties by reducing overall vision and is generally more relevant for conditions like amblyopia or for treating diplopia (double vision), rather than compensating for a visual field deficit.
D. Using eye drops is typically for treating dry eyes, redness, or other ocular conditions, and does not directly address the issues related to homonymous hemianopia. This intervention would not help the client learn to compensate for their visual field loss.
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