A nurse is caring for a 6 year old client who has congestive heart failure and is taking digoxin daily. The client refused breakfast and is complaining of nausea a a and weakness. W Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Request a dietitian consult.
Check the client's vital signs.
Request an order for an antiemetic
Suggest that the client rests before eating the meal.
The Correct Answer is B
Rationale:
A. Request a dietitian consult is incorrect because dietary modifications may be important for a child with congestive heart failure, but this is not the immediate priority when the client is showing potential signs of digoxin toxicity.
B. Check the client's vital signs is correct because nausea, vomiting, and weakness in a child taking digoxin can indicate digoxin toxicity, which can affect heart rate and rhythm. The nurse should first assess vital signs, particularly the heart rate, as digoxin toxicity can cause bradycardia or other dysrhythmias, which may be life-threatening. Assessment is always the first step according to the nursing process and the principle of safety first.
C. Request an order for an antiemetic is incorrect because treating symptoms without assessing the client could mask a potentially serious medication-related complication. Administering an antiemetic would not address the underlying risk of toxicity.
D. Suggest that the client rests before eating the meal is incorrect because resting does not address the potential danger of digoxin toxicity. Weakness and nausea may indicate cardiac compromise, so immediate assessment is necessary before implementing comfort measures.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Pain in both quadrants of the upper abdomen is incorrect because upper abdominal discomfort is usually related to disorders of the stomach, liver, gallbladder, or pancreas. Conditions such as gastritis, peptic ulcer disease, or cholecystitis can cause upper abdominal pain, but appendicitis typically does not present with pain in the upper quadrants, especially not bilaterally, as the appendix is located in the lower abdomen.
B. Pain in the left lower quadrant of the abdomen is incorrect because left lower quadrant pain is more characteristic of conditions such as constipation, gastroenteritis, urinary tract infection, or diverticulitis. Appendicitis rarely causes pain in the left lower quadrant unless the appendix is in an atypical location, which is uncommon.
C. Pain in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen is incorrect because this is associated with hepatobiliary disorders such as cholecystitis, hepatitis, or pneumonia affecting the lower right lung. While referred pain can occasionally be misleading, classic appendicitis pain does not typically localize to the right upper quadrant.
D. Pain in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen is correct because the classic presentation of appendicitis in children includes initial periumbilical pain that is vague and poorly localized, which gradually migrates to the right lower quadrant at McBurney’s point, approximately one-third of the distance from the anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus. Pain becomes sharp, constant, and more localized as the parietal peritoneum becomes inflamed. Associated symptoms often include nausea, vomiting, anorexia, low-grade fever, and sometimes rebound tenderness or guarding on palpation. Recognizing right lower quadrant pain as a hallmark sign allows the nurse to anticipate the need for prompt diagnostic evaluation, such as ultrasound, CT scan, or laboratory studies showing elevated WBC count, and to notify the provider for possible surgical intervention. Early recognition is critical to prevent perforation and peritonitis, which can significantly increase morbidity in children.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rationale:
A. There is a P wave before every QRS complex is correct because in a normal sinus rhythm, the electrical impulse originates from the sinoatrial (SA) node, the heart’s natural pacemaker. This impulse causes atrial depolarization, represented by the P wave, followed by ventricular depolarization, represented by the QRS complex. The presence of a P wave before every QRS complex ensures that the atria are properly contracting and contributing to ventricular filling, which is critical for efficient cardiac output. This pattern is a hallmark of normal conduction and sinus rhythm.
B. The T wave is in the upside down position is incorrect because in a normal ECG, the T wave should be upright in most leads, including leads I, II, and V2–V6. Inverted T waves can indicate myocardial ischemia, infarction, electrolyte imbalances (e.g., hypokalemia), or ventricular strain, which are pathological changes, not normal findings.
C. The QRS is not present in every fourth beat is incorrect because missing QRS complexes indicate dropped beats, which could be due to heart blocks, premature atrial or ventricular contractions, or other conduction abnormalities. This is not part of a normal rhythm and requires immediate assessment, especially in symptomatic clients.
D. The P-R interval measures 0.22 seconds is incorrect because the normal P-R interval ranges from 0.12 to 0.20 seconds. A P-R interval of 0.22 seconds indicates first-degree atrioventricular (AV) block, which is an abnormal conduction pattern where the impulse from the atria to the ventricles is delayed. While often asymptomatic, it is not considered a normal ECG finding.
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