A nurse is caring for a 73-year-old client in the emergency department (ED)
Insert a nasogastric (NG) tube.
Type and cross-match for 2 units of packed RBCs.
Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics.
Measure lactate level.
Rapidly administer 30 ml/kg of normal saline.
Obtain blood cultures.
Obtain a urine specimen.
Obtain a wound culture.
Correct Answer : C,D,E,F
A. Administering antibiotics helps target the suspected infection and prevent its spread. Broad-spectrum antibiotics are typically initiated until the specific pathogen is identified through cultures. This action should be completed as soon as possible within the first hour.
D. Lactate measurement is important in assessing tissue perfusion and the severity of sepsis. Elevated lactate levels indicate tissue hypoperfusion and can help identify patients at higher risk of mortality. Monitoring lactate levels guides resuscitation efforts and helps in assessing the response to treatment.
E. Fluid resuscitation is a cornerstone in the management of sepsis. Administering a large volume of intravenous fluids helps restore intravascular volume, improve tissue perfusion, and prevent further organ dysfunction. The recommended initial fluid bolus is 30 ml/kg of crystalloid solution, such as normal saline, administered rapidly within the first few hours of recognition of sepsis.
F. Blood cultures help identify the causative organism(s) responsible for the sepsis. This information is crucial for guiding antibiotic therapy, especially in cases of severe sepsis or septic shock. Blood cultures should be obtained before initiating antibiotic therapy to maximize their sensitivity and specificity.
B. Type and cross-match for packed red blood cells (PRBCs) are indicated in situations where blood transfusion may be required, such as severe anemia or active bleeding. While sepsis can lead to various complications, such as disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), the priority in the first hour is resuscitation and antibiotic administration.
G. Obtaining a urine specimen may be indicated to assess for urinary tract infection (UTI), which can be a potential source of sepsis. However, in the initial management of sepsis, obtaining blood cultures (option F) takes precedence as blood cultures provide more critical information for guiding antibiotic therapy.
H. Obtaining a wound culture may help identify the specific pathogens present in the wound and guide antibiotic therapy if the wound is suspected to be the source of sepsis. However, in the first hour of managing sepsis, the priority is to initiate broad-spectrum antibiotics and obtain blood cultures, as these interventions are more urgent in preventing further complications from sepsis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
C. Amiodarone is a Class III antiarrhythmic medication commonly used for the acute management of atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular rate. It works by blocking multiple ion channels, prolonging the action potential duration, and slowing conduction in the atria and ventricles. Amiodarone is often used when other interventions such as vagal maneuvers or beta blockers are ineffective or contraindicated. In this scenario, where the patient is hypotensive and symptomatic, intravenous amiodarone may be administered to control the ventricular rate and stabilize hemodynamics
A. Bearing down, or the Valsalva maneuver, is a vagal maneuver that can sometimes help slow the heart rate in certain arrhythmias by increasing parasympathetic tone. However, it may not be effective or safe in all situations, especially if the patient is hypotensive or confused. In this scenario, immediate pharmacological intervention is likely needed to control the heart rate and stabilize hemodynamics.
B. Lidocaine is not typically used to treat atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular rate. Lidocaine is a Class IB antiarrhythmic medication primarily used for the treatment of ventricular arrhythmias, such as ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. It is not considered a first-line agent for atrial fibrillation and may not effectively control the ventricular rate in this situation.
D. While beta blockers are commonly used for rate control in atrial fibrillation, they may not be the best choice in this scenario where the patient is hypotensive and symptomatic. Beta blockers can further decrease blood pressure and exacerbate hypotension, especially in patients with compromised hemodynamics. In such cases, other rate-controlling agents like calcium channel blockers or amiodarone may be preferred.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
D. Myocardial infarction (heart attack) is a common cause of cardiogenic shock. In myocardial infarction, part of the heart muscle becomes ischemic or necrotic due to occlusion of a coronary artery. This leads to impaired cardiac function and reduced cardiac output, resulting in cardiogenic shock. Prompt recognition and treatment of myocardial infarction are crucial to prevent or manage cardiogenic shock.
A. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can lead to systemic vasodilation and distributive shock, but it is not a common cause of cardiogenic shock. In anaphylaxis, the primary mechanism of shock is typically related to widespread vasodilation and increased vascular permeability rather than impaired cardiac function.
B. Hypovolemic shock occurs due to a decrease in intravascular volume, leading to inadequate tissue perfusion. It is not a common cause of cardiogenic shock, as the underlying mechanism is different. In hypovolemic shock, the primary issue is the loss of circulating blood volume, whereas cardiogenic shock involves impaired cardiac function.
C. Pulmonary embolism can lead to acute right heart strain or failure, which may result in hemodynamic instability and shock. However, pulmonary embolism typically causes obstructive shock rather than cardiogenic shock. Obstructive shock occurs when blood flow is obstructed, such as by a pulmonary embolism, leading to reduced cardiac output.
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