A nurse is caring for a client 4 hours following evacuation of a subdural hematoma. Which of the following assessments is the nurse's priority?
Intracranial pressure
Respiratory status
Temperature
Serum electrolytes
The Correct Answer is B
A. Intracranial pressure: Monitoring intracranial pressure is important in clients with a history of subdural hematoma, but immediate assessment of respiratory status takes precedence in the immediate postoperative period to ensure adequate oxygenation and ventilation.
B. Respiratory status: Following evacuation of a subdural hematoma, the client may be at risk for respiratory compromise due to factors such as altered consciousness, impaired airway reflexes, or postoperative complications. Assessing respiratory rate, depth, oxygen saturation, and presence of respiratory distress is essential for early detection and intervention.
C. Temperature: Monitoring temperature is important for detecting signs of infection or systemic complications, but it is not the priority assessment immediately following evacuation of a subdural hematoma.
D. Serum electrolytes: While monitoring serum electrolytes is important for overall assessment and management of the client's condition, it is not the priority assessment in the immediate postoperative period following evacuation of a subdural hematoma.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Bradykinesia: Bradykinesia refers to slowness of movement and is commonly associated with Parkinson's disease. It is not typically assessed through neck flexion in the context of meningitis.
B. Kernig's sign: Kernig's sign is assessed by flexing the patient's hip and knee and then attempting to extend the knee. Resistance or pain during knee extension suggests meningeal irritation, but it does not involve the involuntary flexion of the legs.
C. Nuchal rigidity: Nuchal rigidity refers to stiffness and pain in the neck and inability to flex the neck forward due to inflammation of the meninges. While it is related to meningitis, it does not involve involuntary flexion of the legs.
D. Brudzinski's sign: Brudzinski's sign is a physical exam finding where passive flexion of the neck results in involuntary flexion of the hips and knees. It is a classic sign of meningeal irritation, often seen in meningitis.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Administer naproxen: While pain management is important, naproxen may not effectively resolve the headache associated with post-lumbar puncture headache (PLPH), which is often caused by cerebrospinal fluid leakage.
B. Elevate the head of the bed to 30°: While elevating the head of the bed may provide some relief, it is not typically sufficient to resolve PLPH, which often requires more definitive interventions.
C. Check BP and call for a blood patch: PLPH is commonly treated with a blood patch, which involves injecting the patient's own blood into the epidural space to seal the puncture site and restore normal cerebrospinal fluid pressure. Checking blood pressure is important to assess for hypotension, and calling for a blood patch is the most appropriate action to address the underlying cause of the headache.
D. Darken the client's room and close the door: While creating a quiet and dim environment may help alleviate symptoms of headache, it does not address the underlying cause of PLPH and is not the most appropriate intervention in this situation.
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