A nurse is caring for a client.
After reviewing the information in the client's medical record, which of the following provider prescriptions should the nurse anticipate? Complete the following sentence by using the list of options.
The nurse should anticipate a provider prescription for
The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"A"}
Provider Prescription Choices (i):
- Acyclovir: Acyclovir is an antiviral medication that is commonly prescribed to treat infections caused by the herpes simplex virus (HSV). The client’s symptoms, particularly the painful vesicular sores on the perineum, are classic signs of a genital herpes outbreak.
- Ceftriaxone: Ceftriaxone is an antibiotic commonly used to treat gonorrhea. However, Gonorrhea typically presents with dysuria, urethral or vaginal discharge, and pelvic pain, none of which are reported here.
- Azithromycin: Azithromycin is an antibiotic used to treat chlamydia and other bacterial infections. While chlamydia can cause mild vaginal itching, it doesn’t typically result in painful vesicular sores or systemic symptoms like muscle aches and chills.
- Fluconazole: Fluconazole is an antifungal used to treat yeast infections. While the client reports mild vaginal itching, which could be a sign of a yeast infection, the presence of painful sores, muscle aches, and chills makes a yeast infection unlikely.
Evidence-based Choices (ii):
- Painful vesicular sores on the perineum: Vesicular lesions on the perineum are a hallmark of a genital herpes outbreak. These painful sores are the primary clinical sign of HSV, making antiviral therapy like acyclovir the appropriate treatment.
- Muscle aches and chills: Muscle aches (myalgia) and chills are systemic symptoms that often accompany viral infections, including herpes simplex virus. These symptoms support the suspicion of an active HSV infection, requiring antiviral therapy.
- Enlarged inguinal lymph nodes: Inguinal lymphadenopathy often occurs in response to infections in the genital area, including herpes. Enlarged, tender lymph nodes further indicate a viral infection such as HSV, reinforcing the need for antiviral treatment.
- Low-grade fever: A low-grade fever is a common symptom in many infections, including herpes simplex virus. This, in combination with the client's other symptoms, suggests a viral etiology rather than a bacterial or fungal one, supporting the use of an antiviral like acyclovir.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Thromboembolic events: This is not a black box warning for ciprofloxacin.
B. This drug has a black box warning for causing tendon rupture: Ciprofloxacin, a fluoroquinolone, has a black box warning for the risk of tendonitis and tendon rupture, especially in older adults or those on corticosteroids.
C. Endometrial cancers: Ciprofloxacin is not associated with cancer.
D. Breast cancer: There is no link between ciprofloxacin and breast cancer.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin): Amoxicillin/clavulanate is a broad-spectrum antibiotic but not the preferred choice for anthrax exposure.
B. Nystatin (Mycostatin): Nystatin is an antifungal medication used for treating fungal infections, such as oral thrush or cutaneous candidiasis. It is not effective against anthrax, which is a bacterial infection.
C. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro): Ciprofloxacin, a fluoroquinolone, is the recommended first-line antibiotic for treating anthrax exposure due to its efficacy against Bacillus anthracis, the bacteria causing anthrax.
D. Tamoxifen: Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) used primarily in the treatment of breast cancer. It has no role in treating bacterial infections like anthrax.
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