A nurse is caring for a client having a biophysical profile.
The client asks what the test is for.
What should the nurse include in the response? (Select all that apply.)
Fetal breathing.
Fetal motion.
Amniotic fluid volume assessment.
Fetal neck translucency.
Fetal gender.
Correct Answer : A,B,C
Choice A rationale
Cracked, peeling skin is typical of postmature infants due to prolonged exposure to amniotic fluid. Reduced vernix caseosa, which normally protects the skin, exacerbates this peeling.
Choice B rationale
A positive Moro reflex is an expected neurologic finding in postmature infants, demonstrating an intact central nervous system. Persistence or absence may indicate neurologic compromise requiring further evaluation.
Choice C rationale
Creases covering the soles of the feet are common in postmature infants due to advanced physical maturity. Increased plantar creasing correlates with gestational age and tissue development.
Choice D rationale
Postmature infants often have long, hardened fingernails rather than short, soft nails. Extended gestation promotes additional growth, distinguishing them from premature or term neonates.
Choice E rationale
Vernix is typically absent or minimal in postmature infants due to its absorption after 40 weeks of gestation. Limited vernix increases the risk of skin desquamation and irritation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Increasing fundal massage frequency is not necessary when the fundus is already firm and midline. Fundal massage is primarily used to address uterine atony, which is absent in this scenario. The findings indicate normal post-delivery uterine tone rather than a complication.
Choice B rationale
Documenting the findings and monitoring the client is appropriate when the fundus is firm and midline. The presence of small clots and a large amount of lochia rubra can be normal within the first hour postpartum. Continued observation ensures any potential issues are identified early.
Choice C rationale
Immediate notification of the provider is unnecessary unless there are signs of abnormal bleeding, uterine atony, or other complications. Since the fundus is firm and midline, this suggests the uterine tone is adequate, and intervention is not urgently needed.
Choice D rationale
Encouraging the client to empty her bladder is not relevant here, as the fundus is located appropriately at the midline and umbilical level, indicating that bladder distention is not affecting uterine position. This action would not address the described findings.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A positive rubella serum antibody titer indicates immunity to rubella infection, which is protective during pregnancy. It is not an abnormal finding and does not require immediate reporting. Rubella immunity is important to prevent congenital rubella syndrome in the fetus, a severe condition causing defects such as deafness or cardiac anomalies.
Choice B rationale
Blood pressure of 144/94 mmHg is elevated and indicates gestational hypertension, which could progress to preeclampsia if not managed. Preeclampsia can lead to complications such as eclampsia, placental abruption, or maternal and fetal mortality. Normal blood pressure during pregnancy is less than 140/90 mmHg, making this finding critical to report.
Choice C rationale
Copious leukorrhea is a common physiological change in pregnancy due to increased estrogen levels and vascularity. It is usually benign and protective, preventing infections by maintaining a mildly acidic environment in the vagina. This finding does not warrant immediate concern unless associated with infection symptoms.
Choice D rationale
An O-negative blood type requires administration of Rh immunoglobulin to prevent Rh isoimmunization, but this is routinely managed in pregnancy. It is not an urgent issue unless there are concerns about fetomaternal hemorrhage or alloimmunization, which could harm an Rh-positive fetus.
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