A nurse is caring for a client.
The client reports a recent episode of painful sores on the perineum, muscle aches, and chills for about 2 weeks.
The client currently denies pain but reports sitting is uncomfortable at times.
The client denies dysuria and reports mild vaginal itching.
After reviewing the information in the client’s medical record, which of the following provider prescriptions should the nurse anticipate?
Antiviral medication
Pain management medication
Antibiotic treatment
Topical cream for itching . .
Topical cream for itching . .
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
The client’s symptoms of painful sores on the perineum, muscle aches, and chills are indicative of a viral infection, specifically herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2), which is a sexually transmitted infection. Antiviral medications, such as acyclovir or valacyclovir, are typically prescribed to manage HSV-2. These medications can help to decrease the severity and frequency of outbreaks.
Choice B rationale
While pain management medication may provide temporary relief for the client’s discomfort, it does not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. The client’s symptoms are indicative of a viral infection, not a condition that would primarily be managed with pain medication.
Choice C rationale
Antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections. The client’s symptoms of painful sores on the perineum, muscle aches, and chills are more indicative of a viral infection, specifically HSV-2. Therefore, an antibiotic would not be the most effective treatment option.
Choice D rationale
A topical cream for itching may provide some relief for the client’s reported mild vaginal itching. However, this treatment option does not address the primary issue, which is the painful sores on the perineum and other symptoms indicative of a viral infection.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A negative rubella titer does not necessarily mean that the client is not currently experiencing a rubella infection. The titer measures immunity to the disease, not the presence of an active infection.
Choice B rationale
A negative rubella titer indicates that the client is not immune to the rubella virus. This means that she has not been vaccinated against the disease or has not had it in the past.
Choice C rationale
While a rubella vaccination could be beneficial for a client with a negative rubella titer, it is not typically given during pregnancy due to the theoretical risk to the fetus. The rubella vaccine is a live vaccine, and while there is no evidence of harm to the fetus, it is generally avoided during pregnancy as a precaution.
Choice D rationale
This is the correct interpretation of the data. A client with a negative rubella titer should receive a rubella immunization following delivery to protect against future infections.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
During pregnancy, the recommended daily intake of calcium is 1,300 milligrams. Therefore, the statement “I should increase my calcium intake to 1,500 milligrams per day” indicates a need for clarification.
Choice B rationale
It is indeed recommended to avoid drinking alcoholic beverages during pregnancy as alcohol can harm the developing fetus.
Choice C rationale
Drinking about 2 liters of fluid each day is generally recommended during pregnancy to stay hydrated.
Choice D rationale
Moderate caffeine intake is generally considered safe during pregnancy. However, it is recommended to limit caffeine intake to less than 200 mg per day, which is about one 12 oz cup of coffee.
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