A nurse is caring for a client who had a vaginal birth 2 hours ago.
They are currently receiving Oxytocin, 20 Units in 1000 ml Lactated Ringer's solution infusing at 125 ml/hr. Which of the following findings indicates that the medication is effective?
There is a large amount of bright red lochia with large clots.
The fundus is firm to palpation at the umbilicus.
The fundus is boggy to palpation at the umbilicus.
Lochia is absent.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Bright red lochia with large clots suggests uterine atony, which is a failure of the uterine muscles to contract properly. This indicates that the oxytocin is not effective in promoting uterine contraction, which is necessary to control postpartum bleeding. Uterine atony is a leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage, and this finding is a sign of an ongoing bleeding problem, not a sign of effective medication.
Choice B rationale
A firm fundus indicates the uterine muscles are contracting effectively, which compresses blood vessels and prevents excessive bleeding. Oxytocin is a synthetic analog of the naturally occurring hormone oxytocin, and it works by stimulating these smooth muscle contractions in the uterus. Therefore, a firm fundus is the desired therapeutic effect and indicates the medication is working as intended.
Choice C rationale
A boggy fundus signifies a relaxed, poorly contracted uterus. This allows for blood vessels to bleed freely, increasing the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. This is the opposite of the desired effect of oxytocin and indicates that the medication is not effectively promoting uterine contraction to control bleeding.
Choice D rationale
Absent lochia postpartum is not a normal finding and may indicate an issue such as uterine retention of placental fragments or a blood clot, or an abnormal uterine position. The normal progression of lochia (a vaginal discharge after childbirth) is a physiological process that should occur regardless of medication effectiveness. Absent lochia does not demonstrate a normal physiological response to oxytocin.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While it is true that many narcotic pain medications are administered every four hours, this response is insufficient and potentially misleading. The duration of action of a narcotic is not the only factor to consider in the context of labor. The client's phase of labor and the potential fetal effects are also critical, particularly in the advanced stages of labor when the fetus is more susceptible to medication-induced respiratory depression.
Choice B rationale
While the nurse may need to consult the healthcare provider, this response is not the most direct or professional answer. The nurse has independent knowledge regarding the safety of medication administration based on the client's stage of labor. In the transition phase, the fetus is at a high risk for respiratory depression if narcotics are administered, and the nurse should explain this rationale directly to the client.
Choice C rationale
This response is incorrect and could be harmful. The time since the last dose is only one factor in medication administration. The transition phase of labor is characterized by rapid cervical dilation and is typically a sign that delivery is imminent. Administering a narcotic at this stage increases the risk of neonatal respiratory depression at birth, as the medication crosses the placenta and affects the fetal central nervous system.
Choice D rationale
The transition phase of labor, typically occurring when the cervix is dilated 8 to 10 cm, is a period of high risk for fetal compromise. Administering a narcotic during this phase is contraindicated because the medication can cross the placental barrier and cause neonatal respiratory depression at the time of delivery. The nurse's response should prioritize fetal safety by explaining this physiological risk, which is the most appropriate and scientific response. .
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A fetal heart rate (FHR) of 110 beats per minute with moderate variability and accelerations is within the normal range (110-160 bpm). Moderate variability indicates a healthy, well-oxygenated fetus, and accelerations are reassuring signs. This client is stable and does not require immediate intervention.
Choice B rationale
A client with an epidural who is 7 cm dilated is stable. The nurse should continue to monitor the client's progress and vital signs, but there is no indication of immediate distress. The epidural can cause a slight decrease in blood pressure, which would require monitoring but not an urgent response.
Choice C rationale
A blood pressure of 110/82 mmHg, heart rate of 80 beats per minute, and oxygen saturation of 98% are all within normal ranges. This client is stable and does not have any signs of distress. The nurse should continue to monitor the client but does not need to see them first.
Choice D rationale
A fetal heart rate baseline of 130s is normal, but minimal variability and late decelerations are non-reassuring signs. Minimal variability (less than 6 beats per minute) indicates a potential lack of fetal oxygenation, while late decelerations are a sign of uteroplacental insufficiency. This requires immediate intervention.
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