A nurse is caring for a client who has a fractured right femur and is in balanced suspension traction. The client is reporting pain from muscle spasms. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Obtain a prescription to adjust the weight amount.
Realign the client's position.
Offer a muscle relaxant to the client.
Administer an opioid analgesic.
The Correct Answer is B
B. Muscle spasms can sometimes be triggered or exacerbated by poor positioning or pressure on certain areas of the body. Realigning the client's position will help relieve muscle spasms by reducing pressure or tension on the affected muscles.
A. Adjusting the weight amount in traction may help alleviate pain and muscle spasms by reducing tension on the affected limb. However, realignment should be done first.
C. Muscle relaxants can help alleviate muscle spasms and associated pain by reducing muscle tone and tension. However, realignment should be done first.
D. Opioid analgesics are potent pain relievers that can effectively manage moderate to severe pain, including pain from muscle spasms. However, that should not be the first intervention.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
D. Tachypnea is a classic early manifestation of fat embolism syndrome. Fat emboli can travel to the lungs and obstruct blood flow, leading to respiratory distress and hypoxemia. Tachypnea is the body's response to hypoxemia, as it attempts to increase oxygen intake by breathing more rapidly.
A. Swelling of the calf can occur with conditions such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT), but it is not typically an early manifestation of fat embolism syndrome.
B. tachycardia is more commonly seen due to the body's response to decreased oxygen levels and increased demand on the cardiovascular system.
C. Hypertension is not typically associated with fat embolism syndrome. Instead, hypotension can occur due to decreased cardiac output and systemic vasodilation in severe cases of fat embolism syndrome.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
B. Immediate-release morphine provides rapid pain relief and can effectively address breakthrough pain. The dose of 30 mg is reasonable given the severity of the pain.
A. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used to treat anxiety. While it may help with anxiety, it does not directly address the severe breakthrough pain experienced by the patient.
C. Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant used to treat neuropathic pain and depression. While it may help with chronic pain management, it is not appropriate for providing rapid relief for breakthrough pain or acute anxiety.
D. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) commonly used for mild to moderate pain relief and inflammation. However, it is not typically used for severe breakthrough pain, especially in a patient already receiving opioid therapy.
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