A patient who is receiving sustained-release morphine sulfate (MS Contin) every 12 hours for chronic pain experiences level 9 (0 to 10 scale) breakthrough pain and anxiety. Which action by the nurse is appropriate for treating this change in assessment?
Administer lorazepam (Ativan) 1 mg orally.
Offer immediate-release morphine 30 mg orally.
Suggest the patient take amitriptyline 10 mg orally.
Give Ibuprofen 400 to 800 mg orally.
The Correct Answer is B
B. Immediate-release morphine provides rapid pain relief and can effectively address breakthrough pain. The dose of 30 mg is reasonable given the severity of the pain.
A. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used to treat anxiety. While it may help with anxiety, it does not directly address the severe breakthrough pain experienced by the patient.
C. Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant used to treat neuropathic pain and depression. While it may help with chronic pain management, it is not appropriate for providing rapid relief for breakthrough pain or acute anxiety.
D. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) commonly used for mild to moderate pain relief and inflammation. However, it is not typically used for severe breakthrough pain, especially in a patient already receiving opioid therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
B. Methamphetamine use can cause significant cardiovascular effects, including tachycardia, hypertension, and arrhythmias. Given the patient's presentation with an irregular heart rate and tachycardia, continuous cardiac monitoring through an ECG is essential to assess for any life-threatening arrhythmias or other cardiac complications.
A. Reorientation is important for patients who are disoriented, but in the case of a patient who has admitted to using methamphetamine and is exhibiting signs of agitation and tachycardia, the priority is to ensure the patient's safety and stabilize their condition.
C. While providing a calm environment is beneficial for patients who are agitated, it is not the most important action in this scenario.
D. Obtaining a comprehensive health history, including prior drug use, is important for understanding the patient's background and potential risk factors. However, in this acute situation where the patient is disoriented, agitated, and exhibiting signs of cardiovascular distress, the priority is to address the immediate medical needs and stabilize the patient's condition.
Correct Answer is ["A"]
Explanation
A. Protein-calorie malnutrition can lead to decreased tissue integrity and delayed wound healing, increasing the risk of pressure ulcer development due to compromised nutritional status.
B. Diabetes, especially when uncontrolled, can lead to poor circulation and neuropathy, which increases the risk of pressure ulcers. Hyperglycemia can also impair wound healing and compromise the immune response, further contributing to the risk.
C. Edema increases pressure on the skin and underlying tissues, impairing circulation and increasing the risk of pressure ulcers, especially in areas where there is constant pressure or friction against surfaces.
D. A client with postoperative delirium is not necessarily at risk of delirium.
E. A client post cardiac catheterization and already ambulating is not at risk of pressure sores
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