A patient who is receiving sustained-release morphine sulfate (MS Contin) every 12 hours for chronic pain experiences level 9 (0 to 10 scale) breakthrough pain and anxiety. Which action by the nurse is appropriate for treating this change in assessment?
Administer lorazepam (Ativan) 1 mg orally.
Offer immediate-release morphine 30 mg orally.
Suggest the patient take amitriptyline 10 mg orally.
Give Ibuprofen 400 to 800 mg orally.
The Correct Answer is B
B. Immediate-release morphine provides rapid pain relief and can effectively address breakthrough pain. The dose of 30 mg is reasonable given the severity of the pain.
A. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used to treat anxiety. While it may help with anxiety, it does not directly address the severe breakthrough pain experienced by the patient.
C. Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant used to treat neuropathic pain and depression. While it may help with chronic pain management, it is not appropriate for providing rapid relief for breakthrough pain or acute anxiety.
D. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) commonly used for mild to moderate pain relief and inflammation. However, it is not typically used for severe breakthrough pain, especially in a patient already receiving opioid therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
D. Petechiae, which are small red or purple spots caused by bleeding under the skin, are a classic manifestation of fat embolism syndrome. They typically appear on the upper chest, axilla (armpit), and conjunctiva of the eyes. Petechiae result from the occlusion of small blood vessels by fat globules, leading to microvascular bleeding.

A Paresthesia distal to the fracture site is not a typical manifestation of fat embolism syndrome. Instead, paresthesia may suggest nerve compression or injury related to the fracture itself rather than fat emboli.
B Fever is not a specific manifestation of fat embolism syndrome. While fever can occur with various types of infections or inflammatory conditions, it is not a hallmark symptom of fat embolism.
C Swelling of the calf can occur with conditions such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a potential complication of lower limb fractures. However, it is not a typical manifestation of fat embolism syndrome.
Correct Answer is ["A","D"]
Explanation
A. The heart rate has increased from 92/min on Day 1 to 108/min on Day 2. This significant increase warrants immediate follow-up as it may indicate pain, anxiety, or an underlying physiological issue such as hemorrhage, infection, or cardiac complications.
D. The temperature has increased from 36.4°C (97.5°F) on Day 1 to 37.2°C (98.9°F) on Day 2. While this increase is within a relatively normal range, it is approaching a fever range (> 38°C or 100.4°F) and warrants further evaluation to determine if there is an underlying infection or inflammation.
B. The oxygen saturation remains relatively stable, from 95% on Day 1 to 96% on Day 2. While it is important to monitor oxygen saturation, the minimal change does not indicate an immediate concern. However, it should still be monitored closely for any further decrease.
C. Edema is not directly mentioned in the provided data. While edema can be indicative of various health issues, there is no evidence in the given information to suggest its presence or severity as a concern requiring immediate follow-up.
E. Urine color is not provided in the given data. While changes in urine color can indicate dehydration or other health issues, it is not mentioned in the assessment findings and therefore not a factor for immediate follow-up based on the information provided.
F Pedal pulses were noted as +2 on Day 1, indicating that they were present and normal. Unless there is a significant change in pedal pulses or signs of vascular compromise, such as decreased or absent pulses, there is no immediate need for follow-up based on the given information.
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