A nurse is caring for a client who has a pulmonary embolism and has been on a heparin continuous infusion for 5 days. The provider prescribes warfarin PO without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
"Both heparin and warfarin work together to dissolve the clots."
"Warfarin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level."
"The IV heparin increases the effects of the warfarin and decreases the length of your hospital stay."
"I will call the provider to get a prescription for discontinuing the IV heparin today."
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Heparin and warfarin do not work together to dissolve clots. Heparin acts quickly to prevent further clotting, while warfarin is used for long-term anticoagulation.
Choice B reason: Warfarin's onset of action is slow, requiring several days to reach therapeutic levels. During this time, heparin is used to provide immediate anticoagulation to prevent new clot formation or the growth of existing clots.
Choice C reason: IV heparin does not increase the effects of warfarin. They are used concurrently because of the delay in warfarin's onset of action.
Choice D reason: It is not appropriate to discontinue heparin immediately after starting warfarin due to the delay in warfarin reaching therapeutic levels. The overlap is necessary to ensure continuous anticoagulation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Atropine is not typically used for the treatment of pulmonary embolism. It is an anticholinergic drug that is primarily used to treat bradycardia (slow heart rate) and as part of the management of organophosphate poisoning. It does not have a role in the management of pulmonary embolism, which requires anticoagulation to prevent further clot formation.
Choice B reason: Furosemide is a loop diuretic commonly used to treat fluid overload conditions such as heart failure or edema. While it can help relieve symptoms associated with fluid accumulation, it does not treat the underlying cause of a pulmonary embolism, which is a blood clot in the pulmonary arteries.
Choice C reason: Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that is commonly used in the initial treatment of pulmonary embolism. It works by preventing the formation of new blood clots and stopping existing clots from getting bigger. Heparin is often administered intravenously or subcutaneously and is a key component in the management of pulmonary embolism.
Choice D reason: Dexamethasone is a corticosteroid that is used to reduce inflammation in various conditions, such as allergic reactions, asthma, and certain types of arthritis. It is not used as a primary treatment for pulmonary embolism, as it does not have anticoagulant properties.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason:Shaking the bag is not recommended as it may not adequately mix the solution and could cause emulsion instability.
Choice B reason:Administering the bag as is could be harmful due to the risk of fat embolism or other complications from an unstable emulsion.
Choice C reason:Returning the bag to the pharmacy is the appropriate action to ensure the client receives a properly mixed and safe emulsion.
Choice D reason:Turning the bag upside down one time is not sufficient to mix the emulsion and does not address the potential instability of the solution.
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