A nurse is caring for a client who has acute glomerulonephritis.

Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

The correct answer is choice A. Deep tendon reflexes 2+. This indicates that the client is receiving the therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, which is to prevent seizures by reducing neuromuscular excitability.

Magnesium sulfate is a mineral that is given intravenously to women with preeclampsia, a condition of high blood pressure and protein in the urine during pregnancy, to reduce the risk of seizures or eclampsia. It can also prolong pregnancy for up to two days, allowing drugs that speed up the baby’s lung development to be administered.

Choice B is wrong because 1+ proteinuria via urine dipstick is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a sign of preeclampsia.

Proteinuria indicates that the kidneys are not working properly and are leaking protein into the urine. Magnesium sulfate does not improve the outcomes for the baby and can cause side effects such as respiratory depression for the mother.

Choice C is wrong because pulse rate 100/min is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a possible side effect.

Magnesium sulfate can cause vasodilation, which lowers blood pressure and increases heart rate. A normal pulse rate for an adult is between 60 and 100 beats per minute. A pulse rate higher than 100 beats per minute may indicate tachycardia, which can be caused by various factors such as anxiety, dehydration, fever, infection, or medication.

Choice D is wrong because urine output 20 mL/hr is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a sign of kidney failure. A normal urine output for an adult is between 800 and 2000 mL per day, or about 30 to 80 mL per hour. A urine output lower than 30 mL per hour may indicate oliguria, which can be caused by various factors such as dehydration, blood loss, shock, or kidney damage. Magnesium sulfate can cause renal toxicity if given in high doses or for prolonged periods.

Choice A reason:

Explaining the procedure to the client before verifying informed consent is not an appropriate action: While it is essential to explain the procedure to the client and ensure they have a clear understanding of what they are consenting to, this step typically occurs before the informed consent form is presented. The purpose of the informed consent form is to document that the client has received adequate information and has given their consent voluntarily

Choice B reason:

Confirming the client's signature is authentic is the correct action. Verifying the record of informed consent for a client scheduled for surgery involves several important steps. Of these, the nurse's primary responsibility is to ensure that the client's signature on the informed consent form is authentic. This means ensuring that the client themselves or their authorized representative has signed the form willingly and without coercion.

Choice C reason:

Providing information on the informed consent form about the benefits of the surgery is not an appropriate action: The informed consent form typically contains information about the procedure, its risks, possible complications, and alternatives, but it is not the nurse's responsibility to provide this information. The healthcare provider or surgeon is responsible for explaining the details of the surgery to the client before obtaining their consent.

Choice D reason:

Informing the client about the condition that requires treatment is not an appropriate action: The responsibility of informing the client about their medical condition, the need for treatment, and the available options lies with the healthcare provider or surgeon, not the nurse. The nurse may assist in providing information or answering questions, but the primary responsibility for discussing the medical condition lies with the provider.