A nurse is caring for a client who has AIDS.
Which of the following solutions should the nurse use to disinfect the client's overbed table following a blood spill?

Choice A rationale:

The nurse is demonstrating advocacy by contacting the provider to return and speak with the client when the client expresses a lack of understanding about their diagnosis. Advocacy involves promoting the client's best interests, ensuring they receive appropriate information and care, and facilitating communication between the client and the healthcare team to address their concerns and needs.

Choice B rationale:

Good manners, while important in nursing practice, do not capture the essence of the nurse's action in this scenario. The nurse's primary role is to advocate for the client's understanding and communication with the healthcare provider.

Choice C rationale:

Customer service is not the primary focus in this situation. While providing excellent customer service is important in healthcare, the nurse's primary responsibility is to ensure the client's understanding of their diagnosis and address any questions or concerns they may have.

Choice D rationale:

Kindness is a positive quality in nursing practice, but it does not fully encompass the nurse's role in this scenario. The nurse's primary responsibility is to advocate for the client's understanding and facilitate effective communication with the provider to address the client's concerns and questions.

The correct answer is choice B and C.

Choice A rationale:

Cervical insufficiency is a condition where the cervix begins to shorten and open too early during pregnancy, leading to premature birth or loss of an otherwise healthy pregnancy. However, the client’s symptoms do not indicate cervical insufficiency. There are no reports of lower abdominal pressure, mild pelvic cramps, or a change in vaginal discharge, which are common symptoms of cervical insufficiency.

Choice B rationale:

The client’s severe headache unrelieved by acetaminophen, +3 pitting edema in bilateral lower extremities, and hyperactive reflexes (patellar reflex 4+) are indicative of severe preeclampsia. One of the complications of severe preeclampsia is seizures, also known as eclampsia. Therefore, the client is at risk for developing seizures.

Choice C rationale:

Placental abruption is a serious pregnancy complication in which the placenta detaches from the uterus prematurely. The client’s report of decreased fetal movement could be a sign of placental abruption. In addition, severe preeclampsia can increase the risk of placental abruption. Therefore, the client is at risk for developing placental abruption.

Choice D rationale:

Heart failure occurs when the heart can’t pump enough blood to meet the body’s needs. While preeclampsia can eventually affect many organ systems including the cardiovascular system, there are no immediate signs of heart failure in the client’s symptoms.

Choice E rationale:

Hypoglycemia refers to low blood sugar levels. The client’s symptoms do not suggest hypoglycemia. Symptoms of hypoglycemia typically include confusion, dizziness, feeling shaky, hunger, headaches, irritability, pounding heart or irregular heartbeat, sweating, trembling or tremors, and weakness. In conclusion, based on the client’s symptoms and clinical presentation, she is at greatest risk for developing seizures (Choice B) and placental abruption (Choice C) due to severe preeclampsia.