A nurse is caring for a client who has bulimia nervosa.
The client is at risk for developing
The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"D","dropdown-group-2":"D"}
Cardiovascular abnormalities are a serious risk in clients with bulimia nervosa due to electrolyte imbalances, especially hypokalemia, which can lead to arrhythmias, weakened heart muscles, and potential heart failure. Hyponatremia (low sodium levels) can occur due to excessive vomiting, which leads to the loss of fluids and electrolytes, including sodium. Incorrect responses: Group 1: Hypoglycemia: Bulimia nervosa primarily causes electrolyte imbalances and acid-base disturbances due to vomiting, not significant alterations in blood sugar levels. Metabolic Acidosis: Vomiting leads to the loss of gastric acid, causing metabolic alkalosis. Hypotension: Hypotension could occur if the client experiences significant dehydration from vomiting. Hypotension would be a consequence of severe dehydration rather than a primary risk at this stage. Hyperglycemia: Hyperglycemia is not typically associated with bulimia nervosa or vomiting. It would be more relevant in conditions like diabetes. Group 2: Hyperkalemia: Hyperkalemia (high potassium) is unlikely in bulimia nervosa, where frequent vomiting usually leads to hypokalemia due to the loss of potassium in gastric secretions. Metabolic Acidosis: As mentioned before, vomiting leads to metabolic alkalosis, not acidosis, because of the loss of hydrochloric acid. Hypochloremia: Hypochloremia (low chloride levels) can occur with vomiting due to the loss of stomach acid, which contains chloride. While it is a possible outcome, metabolic alkalosis better captures the overall acid-base disturbance in the client.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. This client is at risk of harming themselves by removing the IV line, which could cause bleeding, infection, or loss of medication. This is a priority issue that requires immediate intervention by the nurse.
B. This client is experiencing a common side effect of pain medication, which can be managed by administering antiemetics, fluids, or changing the medication. This is not a life-threatening issue and can be addressed after attending to the client in choice A.
C. This client has a chronic condition that requires regular dialysis, but they are not in acute distress at this time. They should be monitored for signs of fluid overload, electrolyte imbalance, or infection, but they are not a priority over the client in choice A.
D. This client has a psychosocial need that should be respected and supported by the nurse, but it is not an urgent issue that requires immediate attention. The nurse can arrange for a visit from the chaplain after attending to the client in choice A.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Saying "I'm sure your family does not want you to die" is not a therapeutic response, as it invalidates the client's feelings and imposes the nurse's assumption on the client. This option is incorrect.
B. Asking "Why would you believe such things?" is not a therapeutic response, as it sounds judgmental and confrontational, and may make the client feel defensive or ashamed. This option is incorrect.
C. Asking "How does this make you feel?" is a therapeutic response, as it encourages the client to express their emotions and shows empathy and interest from the nurse. This option is correct.
D. Saying "You should talk to your family about your feelings" is not a therapeutic response, as it implies that the client is responsible for resolving their family issues and may increase their guilt or anxiety. This option is incorrect.
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