A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous heparin infusion. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse review prior to adjusting the client's heparin?
aPTT
PT
INR
WBC count
The Correct Answer is A
A is correct because aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) measures the effectiveness of heparin therapy and guides dosage adjustments.
B is incorrect because PT (prothrombin time) measures the effectiveness of warfarin therapy, not heparin.
C is incorrect because INR (international normalized ratio) is a standardized version of PT that also monitors warfarin therapy, not heparin.
D is incorrect because WBC count (white blood cell count) measures the body's immune response and has no relation to heparin therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason:
"You should administer the medication at bedtime." This statement is incorrect option. Administering methylphenidate at bedtime is not appropriate because it is a stimulant medication, and taking it in the evening could interfere with the child's ability to fall asleep and disrupt their sleep pattern.
"Your child should avoid foods containing tyramine. “This statement is incorrect option. Tyramine is not a concern with methylphenidate. Tyramine is associated with certain antidepressant medications, such as MAO inhibitors. Methylphenidate is not a MAO inhibitor, so there is no need for the child to avoid tyramine-containing foods.
Option C: "You should administer the medication after breakfast." This is the correct option. Administering methylphenidate after breakfast is a common practice because it allows the child to benefit from the medication during school hours when improved attention and focus are needed the most.
"Your child should avoid excess sodium intake." This statement is an incorrect option. Excess sodium intake is not directly related to methylphenidate use. However, it is generally a good idea for anyone, including children, to have a balanced and healthy diet, which may include monitoring sodium intake. But it is not specifically tied to the administration of methylphenidate.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Option A is incorrect because enrolling the UAP in a hospital education class on conducting safe client care does not address the immediate problem or correct the error.
Option B-This would be inappropriate for oral care in an unconscious client as it increases the risk of aspiration.The side-lying position is safer for oral hygiene in unconscious clients.
Option C:While encouraging family participation can be beneficial, it is not the most immediate concern in this situation. The priority is ensuring safe and effective care, which the UAP is providing correctly.
Option D:The flat side-lying position is appropriate for an unconscious client during oral hygiene care. This position helps to prevent aspiration by allowing any secretions or fluids to drain out of the mouth rather than down the throat, which could happen if the client were in a Fowler's position. The presence of the emesis basin near the chin also indicates that the UAP is prepared to catch any fluids, further reducing the risk of aspiration
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