A nurse is caring for a client who has consented to an amniocentesis for genetic cell analysis. The client asks why she can’t have the test before 14 weeks of gestation.
Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

The fetus is not mature enough until this time.

This is when the heartbeat is first audible.

There is not enough amniotic fluid until this time.

The genetic results will not be accurate until this time.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A:

While fetal maturity is a factor in the timing of amniocentesis, it's not the primary reason for waiting until 14 weeks.

Earlier in pregnancy, fetal cells are less abundant in the amniotic fluid, making it more challenging to obtain a sufficient sample for accurate testing.

Additionally, the procedure carries a slightly higher risk of miscarriage before 14 weeks.

Choice B:

The audibility of the fetal heartbeat is not directly related to the timing of amniocentesis.

It's typically possible to hear the heartbeat by Doppler ultrasound around 10-12 weeks, but this doesn't mean there's enough amniotic fluid for amniocentesis.

Choice D:

The accuracy of genetic results is not dependent on the timing of amniocentesis after 14 weeks.

As long as a sufficient sample of amniotic fluid is obtained, the accuracy of the results is not affected by gestational age.

Choice C:

The most accurate explanation for why amniocentesis is not performed before 14 weeks is the amount of amniotic fluid. Before 14 weeks, there's typically not enough amniotic fluid to safely extract a sample without potentially harming the fetus or the placenta.

By 14 weeks, there's usually enough fluid to adequately cushion the fetus and the needle during the procedure, reducing the risks involved.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The correct answer is choice b. Placenta previa.

Choice A rationale:

Threatened abortion typically occurs in the first trimester and involves vaginal bleeding with or without abdominal pain. It is not associated with late pregnancy bleeding.

Choice B rationale:

Placenta previa is characterized by painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester. It occurs when the placenta covers the cervix, leading to bleeding as the cervix begins to dilate.

Choice C rationale:

Preterm labor involves uterine contractions leading to cervical changes before 37 weeks of gestation. While it can cause bleeding, it is usually accompanied by regular contractions and not typically described as bright red bleeding.

Choice D rationale:

Abruptio placentae involves the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, leading to painful, dark red vaginal bleeding. It is often associated with abdominal pain and uterine tenderness, which differentiates it from placenta previa.

A. Scrambled eggs. B. A high fiber meal. C. Orange juice.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A: Scrambled eggs

While eggs contain protein and iron, they do not significantly enhance iron absorption.

Consuming eggs alongside ferrous sulfate has not been shown to significantly improve iron uptake. Therefore, scrambled eggs are not the most effective choice to promote iron absorption from ferrous sulfate.

Choice B: A high fiber meal

High-fiber foods can interfere with iron absorption.

Fiber binds to iron, making it less available for absorption in the small intestine. Consuming ferrous sulfate with a high-fiber meal can potentially reduce its effectiveness.

Choice C: Orange juice

Orange juice is a rich source of vitamin C, which significantly enhances iron absorption.

Vitamin C converts non-heme iron (the form of iron in ferrous sulfate) into a more easily absorbed form.

Studies have shown that consuming vitamin C with iron supplements can increase iron absorption by up to 300%.

This makes orange juice the optimal choice to accompany ferrous sulfate, ensuring optimal absorption and effectiveness in treating iron deficiency anemia.

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A nurse is caring for a client who has consented to an amniocentesis for genetic cell analysis. The client asks why she can’t have the test before 14 weeks of gestation. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Nursing Test Bank

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A nurse is admitting a client who is at 36 weeks gestation and has pain, bright red vaginal bleeding. The nurse recognizes this finding as an indication of which of the following conditions? Choice Options:

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is pregnant and has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate due to iron deficiency anemia. The nurse should instruct the client to take this medication with which of the following?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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A nurse is caring for a client who has consented to an amniocentesis for genetic cell analysis. The client asks why she can’t have the test before 14 weeks of gestation.
Which of the following responses should the nurse make?