A nurse is caring for a client who has overdosed on morphine sulfate (Astramorph) and was provided naloxone (Narcan) via subcutaneous route 15 minutes ago. Which of the following signs indicate that the client has abstinence syndrome? (Select All That Apply.).

Coma

Pinpoint pupils

Fever

Vomiting

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : C,D

A.   Coma is typically a symptom of opioid overdose, not abstinence syndrome.
B.   Pinpoint pupils are commonly associated with opioid toxicity, not abstinence syndrome.
C.   Fever is a sign of abstinence syndrome, which can occur after opioid withdrawal.
D.   Vomiting is also a symptom of abstinence syndrome, which is a withdrawal reaction that can occur when naloxone reverses opioid effects.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Subcutaneous administration is an acceptable route for naloxone when IV access is not available.
B. Intravenous administration is an effective route for naloxone, especially in emergency situations where rapid action is needed.
D. Intramuscular administration is also effective and commonly used, especially in opioid overdose situations.
C. Naloxone should not be administered orally because it undergoes rapid first-pass metabolism in the liver, which would significantly reduce its effectiveness.

A. Alcohol use disorder B. Asthma C. Diabetes D. Heart failure

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Acetaminophen is contraindicated in clients with alcohol use disorder because chronic alcohol use increases the risk of liver damage, and acetaminophen can cause hepatotoxicity.
B. Acetaminophen does not have a direct contraindication with asthma.
C. Acetaminophen is safe for clients with diabetes unless there are other contraindications or liver issues.
D. Heart failure is not a contraindication for acetaminophen, but caution should be used in cases of severe liver disease, which may be related to heart failure.

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A nurse is caring for a client who has overdosed on morphine sulfate (Astramorph) and was provided naloxone (Narcan) via subcutaneous route 15 minutes ago. Which of the following signs indicate that the client has abstinence syndrome? (Select All That Apply.).

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is preparing to administer naloxone (Narcan). The nurse understands that this medication has a rapid first-pass inactivation. Which of the route should the nurse NOT administer this medication?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A new client has been admitted to the hospital and reported taking acetaminophen (Tylenol) at home. The nurse should identify that which of the following conditions is contraindicated for acetaminophen (Tylenol)?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is educating a client about interactions with acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin). Which of the following supplements increases the risk of bleeding in clients who are taking NSAIDs? (Select All That Apply.)

A nurse receives an order for morphine sulfate (Astramorph) to be administered as an intravenous push (IVP) for severe pain. When giving morphine sulfate (Astramorph) IVP, the nurse understands that this medication needs to be pushed for how long to prevent adverse reactions?

A nurse is educating a client with a new prescription of alendronate (Fosamax) for osteoporosis. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in her patient's education about this medication?

A nurse is providing an in-service regarding medications that can cause abstinence syndrome. Which of the following medications can cause abstinence syndrome? (Select All That Apply.).

A nurse is teaching a client about a new prescription for Ibuprofen (Motrin) Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

A nurse is preparing an in-service presentation on medication classifications. Which of the following medications are considered opioid antagonists? (Select All That Apply.)

A client has a new prescription for baclofen (Lioresal). Which of the following statements should the nurse include as a therapeutic indication for this medication?