A nurse is caring for a client who has overdosed on morphine sulfate (Astramorph) and was provided naloxone (Narcan) via subcutaneous route 15 minutes ago. Which of the following signs indicate that the client has abstinence syndrome? (Select All That Apply.).
Coma
Pinpoint pupils
Fever
Vomiting
Correct Answer : C,D
A. Coma is typically a symptom of opioid overdose, not abstinence syndrome.
B. Pinpoint pupils are commonly associated with opioid toxicity, not abstinence syndrome.
C. Fever is a sign of abstinence syndrome, which can occur after opioid withdrawal.
D. Vomiting is also a symptom of abstinence syndrome, which is a withdrawal reaction that can occur when naloxone reverses opioid effects.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Ibuprofen does not inhibit mu receptors. Mu receptors are associated with opioid actions, while ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID).
B. While long-term use of ibuprofen may increase the risk of cardiovascular events like myocardial infarction, this is not the primary action of the drug.
C. Ibuprofen does not decrease the risk of stroke. In fact, chronic use of NSAIDs may actually increase the risk of bleeding and stroke.
D. Ibuprofen inhibits both COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes, which are involved in the inflammatory process. This inhibition helps reduce pain, inflammation, and fever.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Acetaminophen is contraindicated in clients with alcohol use disorder because chronic alcohol use increases the risk of liver damage, and acetaminophen can cause hepatotoxicity.
B. Acetaminophen does not have a direct contraindication with asthma.
C. Acetaminophen is safe for clients with diabetes unless there are other contraindications or liver issues.
D. Heart failure is not a contraindication for acetaminophen, but caution should be used in cases of severe liver disease, which may be related to heart failure.
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