A client has a new prescription for baclofen (Lioresal). Which of the following statements should the nurse include as a therapeutic indication for this medication?

Relief of muscle spasms related to muscle injury.

Relief of spasticity related to cerebral palsy, spinal cord injury, and multiple sclerosis

Treatment of malignant hyperthermia.

Treatment of opioid overdose

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A.   Baclofen does not treat muscle spasms resulting from injury, as its primary use is for spasticity related to neurological conditions.
B.   Baclofen is primarily used to treat spasticity, which is commonly seen in conditions such as cerebral palsy, spinal cord injury, and multiple sclerosis. It works by acting on the central nervous system to reduce muscle stiffness and spasm.
C.   Malignant hyperthermia is typically treated with dantrolene, not baclofen.
D.   Baclofen does not treat opioid overdose; naloxone is the medication used for this purpose.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. After taking alendronate, clients should not lie down flat for at least 30 minutes to avoid esophageal irritation and potential damage.
B. Alendronate should be taken before breakfast, but the client should not lie down afterward. It should be taken on an empty stomach.
C. The correct instruction is to sit up or ambulate for at least 30 minutes after taking alendronate. This prevents esophageal irritation and ensures proper absorption.
D. Alendronate is typically taken whole with a full glass of water, not chewed, and should not be taken after meals.

A. Morphine Sulfate (Astramorph) B. Naloxone (Narcan C. Butorphanol Stado D. Acetaminophen (scenc)

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Morphine is a full agonist on mu receptors and does not act on kappa receptors in the same way.
B. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that blocks both mu and kappa receptors.
C. Butorphanol is a mixed opioid agonist-antagonist that acts as an agonist on kappa receptors and an antagonist on mu receptors. It is used for pain management and has a lower risk of dependence compared to full opioid agonists.
D. Acetaminophen does not act on opioid receptors and is not classified as an opioid.

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A client has a new prescription for baclofen (Lioresal). Which of the following statements should the nurse include as a therapeutic indication for this medication?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is educating a client with a new prescription of alendronate (Fosamax) for osteoporosis. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in her patient's education about this medication?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Which of the following medication acts as an antagonist on mu receptors and agonists of kappa receptors?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is teaching a client about a new prescription for Ibuprofen (Motrin) Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

A nurse is caring for a client who has overdosed on morphine sulfate (Astramorph) and was provided naloxone (Narcan) via subcutaneous route 15 minutes ago. Which of the following signs indicate that the client has abstinence syndrome? (Select All That Apply.).

A nurse is providing education to a client who has migraine headaches and has a new prescription for sumatriptan (Imitrex). Which manifestations Indicate a possible adverse reaction that the nurse should instruct the client to stop taking the medication and notify the provider?

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is taking raloxifene (Evista) to prevent postmenopausal osteoporosis. Which of the following options DOES NOT indicate an adverse effect of this medication?

A new client has been admitted to the hospital and reported taking acetaminophen (Tylenol) at home. The nurse should identify that which of the following conditions is contraindicated for acetaminophen (Tylenol)?

A client has a new prescription for baclofen (Lioresal). Which of the following statements should the nurse include as a therapeutic indication for this medication?

A nurse is preparing to administer naloxone (Narcan). The nurse understands that this medication has a rapid first-pass inactivation. Which of the route should the nurse NOT administer this medication?